How do I prove that x + 1/x is greater than or equal to 2 if x > 0

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the inequality x + 1/x ≥ 2 for x > 0, with participants exploring various methods and reasoning without the use of calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants consider a proof by contradiction, transforming the inequality into a quadratic form. Others suggest using algebraic manipulation and the hint involving (x - 1)^2 > 0. Some express uncertainty about the implications of their findings for values of x less than or greater than 1.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various approaches to the problem, with some participants offering hints and algebraic transformations. There is no explicit consensus, but several productive lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants note restrictions such as the prohibition of calculus and express concerns about the validity of their proofs for different ranges of x.

JasonJo
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How to prove this?

How do I prove that x + 1/x is greater than or equal to 2 if x > 0

i'm not allowed to use calculus either.

i got that x + 1/x is greater than zero, but i can't get greater than or equal to 2.
 
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Assume for contradiction that x > 0 yet x + 1/x < 2. Transform it into a quadratic and show that this is impossible.
 
Hint: (x - 1)^2 > 0.

Regards,
George
 
First make the equation into x^2-2x+1 >= 0 by rearranging and multiplying by x.

You should find it is (x-1)^2 so for any x (not just x>0) this function is greater than or equal to 0 because of ^2.

For your situation it is obvious that x>0 which is certainly true for the factorised function. Therefore you have proved that x+1/x is greater than or equal to 2.
 
pivoxa15 said:
First make the equation into x^2-2x+1 >= 0 by rearranging and multiplying by x.

You should find it is (x-1)^2 so for any x (not just x>0) this function is greater than or equal to 0 because of ^2.

For your situation it is obvious that x>0 which is certainly true for the factorised function. Therefore you have proved that x+1/x is greater than or equal to 2.

before i posted this, i did get the algebraic manipulation of (x-1)^2, but i thought that only proved it for x greater than or equal to 1. but i guess since it's an equivalent statement, it's the same thing.

thanks everyone
 
Another method is arithmetis-geometric mean inequality.
 
Strictly speaking a proof would work the other way:

for any x, [itex](x-1)^2\ge 0[/itex] so [itex]x^2- 2x+ 1\ge 0[/itex].
Adding 2x to both sides, [itex]x^2+ 1\ge 2x[/itex]. Finally, dividing both sides by the positive number x, [itex]x+ \frac{1}{x}\ge 2[/itex]
 

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