How do I prove this? (summation problem)

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the inequality $$\sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i^2 > \frac{1}{n^2}(\sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i)^2$$ for a set of real numbers \(x_i\). The context includes mathematical reasoning and the application of inequalities, particularly the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Technical explanation, Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the inequality and expresses uncertainty about its validity, noting that it seems true based on examples.
  • Another participant suggests considering the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality as a potential tool for the proof.
  • A participant acknowledges familiarity with the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality but is unsure how to apply it to the current problem, specifically when only one set of variables \(x_i\) is involved.
  • Following the suggestion to set \(y_i = 1\), a participant successfully applies the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality, leading to a conclusion that supports the original inequality.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

The discussion shows a progression from uncertainty to a proposed proof using the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality. While one participant expresses initial doubt, the later application of the inequality suggests a resolution for that participant, though no formal consensus is declared.

Contextual Notes

Participants do not fully explore all assumptions or potential limitations of the inequality, and the discussion does not address whether the inequality holds under all conditions or for all sets of \(x_i\).

Gridvvk
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$$\sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i^2 > \frac{1}{n^2}(\sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i)^2$$

Note: each x_i is any observation (or statistic) it can be any real number and need not be constrained in anyway whatsoever, though you can take n > 1 and integer (i.e. there is at least two observations and the number of observations is discrete).

I'm not sure if this true or not, but part of my analysis to a particular problem assumed this was true, and I'm trying to prove it is indeed true (it seems to be case for any examples I come up with).

So far I came up with,
$$n^2 \sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i^2 > \sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i^2 + 2\sum_{i \neq j, i > j} x_ix_j$$
$$(n^2 - 1)\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i^2 > 2\sum_{i \neq j,\: i > j} x_ix_j$$

and I'm not sure how to proceed from there.
 
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Are you familiar with the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality?
 
micromass said:
Are you familiar with the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality?

Yes I am, but I'm not sure how to use it here. If I was interested in both a x_i and y_i then I would see how to use it here, but here I'm only looking at a x_i.
 
Gridvvk said:
Yes I am, but I'm not sure how to use it here. If I was interested in both a x_i and y_i then I would see how to use it here, but here I'm only looking at a x_i.

Maybe take all ##y_i = 1##?
 
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micromass said:
Maybe take all ##y_i = 1##?

Hmm. Alright then by Cauchy-Schwartz I can say,

$$(\sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i \times 1)^2 \le (\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i^2) (\sum_{i=1}^{n}1) = n\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i^2 < n^2 \sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i^2$$

Which was what I wanted.

Thanks!
 

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