How Do Subspace Topologies Compare When One is Finer?

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When T' is a strictly finer topology than T on a space X, the subspace topology on a subset Y of X can also be finer, but this is not guaranteed in every case. Specifically, while an open set A in the subspace topology induced by T can be shown to be open in the topology induced by T', it does not imply that the subspace topology on Y is strictly finer. A counterexample is provided by considering Y as a single point, where the topologies may coincide. Therefore, while the finer topology can lead to more open sets, it does not always result in a strictly finer subspace topology. Understanding the definitions and properties of subspace topologies is crucial for accurate proofs in this context.
tomboi03
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If T and T' are topologies on X and T' is strictly finer than T, what can you say about the corresponding subspace topologies on the subset Y of X?

See the thing is... I know that they CAN be finer but that's might not be for every case. because Y is JUST a subset of X. This does not necessarily mean finer or coarser.

How do i put this in terms of symbols in my proof?
 
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I would reread the definition of subspace topology.

For your question, suppose A is open in the subspace topology induced by T. Then by definition, there exists U open in X such that A = U int Y. Since U is also open in the T' topology this shows that A is open in the topology induced by T'. This shows that the T' induced topology is finer than the T-induced topology.

But it needn't be strictly finer (Hint: let Y be a single point).
 

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