How do you mathematically describe wave function overlap?

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Wave function overlap can be mathematically described using quantum mechanics equations, particularly in the context of hydrogen orbital wave functions. The overlap does not signify a unique space of randomness; rather, it indicates the probability regions where a particle could exist. The concept of randomness in particle states is often misunderstood, as wave functions primarily describe potential locations rather than a state of shifting between them. When observing a system, the wave function collapses to a specific state, but this does not imply that overlap represents a transitional state. Understanding these principles clarifies the nature of wave functions and their implications in quantum mechanics.
Zachary Nichols
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Is there a way to mathematically describe the space where wave functions overlap like with how wave functions describe the space a particle could exist. Then if that is possible can you determine the time period at which that overlap will occur.
 
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Wave functions from what?
There is nothing special about overlapping wavefunctions.
Zachary Nichols said:
Then if that is possible can you determine the time period at which that overlap will occur.
Sure, just follow the equations of quantum mechanics.
 
Hydrogen orbital wave functions.

also doesn't the overlap of wave functions represent the space at which the particle is in a state of randomness shifting between the two states until we look at the system and the the overlap collapse into one of the wave functions again
 
Normal hydrogen has just one electron. Normally, the electron will be in the ground state, and the other states are empty and do not matter.
Zachary Nichols said:
also doesn't the overlap of wave functions represent the space at which the particle is in a state of randomness shifting between the two states until we look at the system and the the overlap collapse into one of the wave functions again
No.
 
Okay than what does represent that space where a particle is in randomness between two states, because the wave functions only describes the space at which one particle could exist
 
Zachary Nichols said:
also doesn't the overlap of wave functions represent the space at which the particle is in a state of randomness shifting between the two states until we look at the system and the the overlap collapse into one of the wave functions again

As Mfb said - no.

But I suspect you have some misconceptions about what a wavefunction is. The following may be helpful in sorting those out:
http://www.scottaaronson.com/democritus/lec9.html

Thanks
Bill
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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