- #1

deuteron

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- TL;DR Summary
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In Griffith's page 7, the following is mentioned:

What confuses me here the most is the first sentence: "Particles have a wave nature, encoded in ##\psi##"

As far as I have understood, the square of the amplitude of the wave function gives us the probability of finding a function at a given point ##(x,t)##.

If we consider the experimental setup with two splits and a low intensity beam, such that only one electron passes the splits, we see the interference pattern of the wave function produced by the electrons on the screen, where the electrons correspond to a "point" on the screen. So the thing that interferes is the probability density function.

In that case, how is this experiment a proof of the wave-like nature of the electrons, from which I understand that electrons have a wave-like property. Isn't it that the probability distribution of the particles is a wave? How do we deduce from this experiment that the particles itself behave like a wave?

What confuses me here the most is the first sentence: "Particles have a wave nature, encoded in ##\psi##"

As far as I have understood, the square of the amplitude of the wave function gives us the probability of finding a function at a given point ##(x,t)##.

If we consider the experimental setup with two splits and a low intensity beam, such that only one electron passes the splits, we see the interference pattern of the wave function produced by the electrons on the screen, where the electrons correspond to a "point" on the screen. So the thing that interferes is the probability density function.

In that case, how is this experiment a proof of the wave-like nature of the electrons, from which I understand that electrons have a wave-like property. Isn't it that the probability distribution of the particles is a wave? How do we deduce from this experiment that the particles itself behave like a wave?