MHB How Does Corollary 4.2.6 Prove M is Noetherian?

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The discussion centers on understanding how Corollary 4.2.6 proves that a finitely generated module M is Noetherian, as presented in Paul E. Bland's "Rings and Their Modules." Participants clarify that there exists an epimorphism f from R^(n) to M, allowing the application of the First Isomorphism Theorem. It is established that if R^(n) is Noetherian, then M must also be Noetherian due to the properties of exact sequences and the kernel of f. The conversation emphasizes the importance of correctly identifying the kernel and applying the corollary to conclude that both the kernel and M are Noetherian. Overall, the thread provides a detailed exploration of the proof's nuances and the application of relevant propositions and corollaries.
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I am reading Paul E. Bland's book, "Rings and Their Modules".

I am focused on Section 4.2: Noetherian and Artinian Modules and need some help to fully understand the proof of part of Proposition 4.2.11 ... ...

Proposition 4.2.11 reads as follows:View attachment 8217I need help with the Proof of $$(1) \Longrightarrow (2)$$ ...

I am struggling with this proof so forgive me if my questions are possibly formulated badly ...Now in Bland's proof ... given that $$M$$ is finitely generated we have by Proposition 2.2.6 that ...

$$\exists \ f$$ such that $$f ( R^{ (n) } ) = M$$

for some homomorphism $$f$$ ... ... is that correct?... now ...

Bland argues that Corollary 4.2.6 shows that because $$f ( R^{ (n) } ) = M$$ then we have that $$M$$ is noetherian ... ...

... BUT ...

... how exactly do we use or employ Corollary 4.2.6 to show that $$f ( R^{ (n) } ) = M \Longrightarrow M$$ is noetherian ...What would $$M_1$$ and $$M_2$$ be in this case ... ?
Hope someone can help ...

Peter

=======================================================================***NOTE***

The above post refers to Proposition 2.2.6 and also to Corollary 4.2.6 ... so I am providing the text of each ... as follows:
View attachment 8218
View attachment 8219
View attachment 8220
Hope access to the above text helps ... ...

Peter
 
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It is correct that there is an epimorphism $f:R^{(n)} \longrightarrow M$

Now apply the first isomorphism theorem. and then cor.4.2.6. (or prop.4.2.5)
 
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steenis said:
It is correct that there is an epimorphism $f:R^{(n)} \longrightarrow M$

Now apply the first isomorphism theorem. and then cor.4.2.6. (or prop.4.2.5)
Thanks steenis ... but not sure if I follow ..

... but will try ... as follows ...We have an epimorphism $f:R^{(n)} \longrightarrow M$

where $$f (( r_i )) = \sum_{ i = 1 }^n x_i r_i$$ Hence $$\text{ Ker } f = (0) = (0, 0, \ ... \ ... \ , 0)$$ ... $$n$$ elements ... ... ... but is this correct?

Now apply First Isomorphism Theorem ...

$$R^{(n)} / (0) = R^{(n)} = \cong M$$

So ... given $$R^{(n)}$$ is noetherian ... then so is $$M$$ ...... hmmm ... doubt whether my argument is correct ... especially since I did not use Corollary 4.2.6 ...

Also ... not sure how to justify that $$\text{ Ker } f = (0) = (0, 0, \ ... \ ... \ , 0)$$ ... n elements ...
Can you help further ...

Peter
 
No, $\text{ker } f = 0$ iff $f$ is a monomorphism.
In this case $f$ is an epimorphism, and $\text{ker } f$ need not be $0$,

Say $N = \text{ker } f$ then $N$ is a submodule of $R^{(n)}$ and $R^{(n)} / N \cong M$.
 
steenis said:
No, $\text{ker } f = 0$ iff $f$ is a monomorphism.
In this case $f$ is an epimorphism, and $\text{ker } f$ need not be $0$,

Say $N = \text{ker } f$ then $N$ is a submodule of $R^{(n)}$ and $R^{(n)} / N \cong M$.
Thanks Steenis ...

You have shown that $R^{(n)} / N \cong M$ where $N = \text{ Ker } f$ ... ... ... ... ... (1)... and we have by Proposition 4.2.5 that:$$R^{(n)}$$ is noetherian $$\Longrightarrow R^{(n)} / N$$ is noetherian ... ... ... ... ... (2)Now we have that (1) (2) $$\Longrightarrow M$$ is noetherian ... Is that correct ... ?

... BUT as an aside ... Bland suggests we could use Corollary 4.2.6 to show $$M$$ is noetherian ...But how do we do this ... ... ?We would need to find a short exact sequence $$0\rightarrow M_1\overset{ \psi }{\rightarrow}M\overset{ \phi }{\rightarrow}M_2\rightarrow 0$$where $$\text{ I am } \psi = \text{ Ker } \phi$$ But ... if we use $$M_1 = R^{(n)}$$ ...... we then have $$\text{ Ker } \psi = N$$ (see above) and $$\text{ I am } 0 = 0$$ ... so sequence is not exact at $$M_1$$ ... ?
How do we proceed ... ?Can you help in this matter ...

Peter
 
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We have an $R$-epimorphism $f:R^{(n)} \rightarrow M$.

$R^{(n)}$ is noetherian.

Then $\text{ker } f \leq R^{(n)}$ and $R^{(n)} / \text{ker } f$ are noetherian by prop.4.2.5.

Thus $M \cong R^{(n)} / \text{ker } f$ is noetherian.

To prove that $M$ is noetherian using cor.4.2.6. you do not need $\text{ker } f$ (my mistake, sorry).

You can prove easily that this series is exact:

$0\rightarrow \text{ker } f \overset{i}{ \rightarrow}R^{(n)} \overset{f}{ \rightarrow}M \rightarrow 0$

$R^{(n)}$ is noetherian, mow you can apply cor.4.2.6.
 
steenis said:
We have an $R$-epimorphism $f:R^{(n)} \rightarrow M$.

$R^{(n)}$ is noetherian.

Then $\text{ker } f \leq R^{(n)}$ and $R^{(n)} / \text{ker } f$ are noetherian by prop.4.2.5.

Thus $M \cong R^{(n)} / \text{ker } f$ is noetherian.

To prove that $M$ is noetherian using cor.4.2.6. you do not need $\text{ker } f$ (my mistake, sorry).

You can prove easily that this series is exact:

$0\rightarrow \text{ker } f \overset{i}{ \rightarrow}R^{(n)} \overset{f}{ \rightarrow}M \rightarrow 0$

$R^{(n)}$ is noetherian, mow you can apply cor.4.2.6.
Thanks steenis ... most helpful ...

Can see that the short exact sequence

$0\rightarrow \text{ker } f \overset{i}{ \rightarrow}R^{(n)} \overset{f}{ \rightarrow}M \rightarrow 0$

will work ... why didn't I see that ... ... :( ... ...

We have $$\text{ I am } 0 = 0 = \text{ Ker } i$$ ...

... and $$\text{ I am } i = \text{ Ker } f $$ ...

... and $$\text{ I am } f = M = \text{ Ker } 0' $$ ... where $$0' : M \to 0$$ and $$0' (x) = 0$$ for all $$x \in M$$ ... ... Then since $$R^{(n)}$$ is noetherian then by Corollary 4.2.6 $$\text{ Ker } f$$ and $$M$$ are noetherian ...Thanks steenis for all the help!

Peter
 
sorry, wrong answer
 
steenis said:
sorry, wrong answer
Sorry Steenis ... I don't understand you ...

Can you give me a hint as to what is wrong ...?

Peter
 
  • #10
O, I am sorry. not you gave a wrong answer, I did gave a wrong answer and I do not know how to delete a submitted post in which I wrote rubbish.

Your answer in post #7 is correct.
 
  • #11
steenis said:
O, I am sorry. not you gave a wrong answer, I did gave a wrong answer and I do not know how to delete a submitted post in which I wrote rubbish.

Your answer in post #7 is correct.
Thanks steenis ...

No worries at all ...

Thanks for all your help ...

Peter
 

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