How does f(x)g(x)->0 if f(x)->0 and g(x) is limited?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that if f(x) approaches 0 and g(x) is bounded, then the product f(x)g(x) also approaches 0. Participants reference the product rule for limits and seek clarification on the definition of a bounded function. The conversation highlights the distinction between bounded and convergent sequences, using examples like $$\sin(\theta)$$ and the sequence $$a_n=(-1)^n$$ to illustrate these concepts. A link to a relevant proof on Wikibooks is provided for further reading.

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Petrus
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Hello MHB,
Show that f(x)g(x)->0 if f(x)->0 and g(x) is limited.
The proof for this one is in the calculus book which our school use but I use 3 diffrent calculus book and can't find it in any of them and can't find it in Google, If anyone got a Link for the proof I would be glad to read it
Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$
 
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What do you mean by the function $g(x)$ is limited ?
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
What do you mean by the function $g(x)$ is limited ?
I mean that it's not infinity if I Also understand correct, it'S bound like $$\sin(\theta)•0$$ and $$\sin(\theta)$$ is limited so it equal 0. Does this make sense?
 
There is a difference between a sequence being bounded or convergent because a bounded sequence might not be convergent take for example $$a_n=(-1)^n$$
while the sequence is bounded $$|a_n|\leq 1$$ it doesn't converge.
 
Hello,
this is the proof that I find on My notebook and can't understand this $$|g(x)|\leq B$$
e8swar.jpg


Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$
 
Last edited:

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