MHB How does f(x)g(x)->0 if f(x)->0 and g(x) is limited?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Petrus
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
The discussion centers on proving that the product f(x)g(x) approaches 0 as f(x) approaches 0 and g(x) is bounded. Participants seek clarification on the definition of "limited" or "bounded" functions, with examples provided to illustrate the concept. A reference to a proof of the product rule for limits is shared, but the original poster struggles to find a clear explanation in their calculus resources. There is confusion regarding the epsilon-delta definition of limits and how it applies to the problem. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding boundedness in the context of limits and convergence.
Petrus
Messages
702
Reaction score
0
Hello MHB,
Show that f(x)g(x)->0 if f(x)->0 and g(x) is limited.
The proof for this one is in the calculus book which our school use but I use 3 diffrent calculus book and can't find it in any of them and can't find it in Google, If anyone got a Link for the proof I would be glad to read it
Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$
 
Physics news on Phys.org
MarkFL said:
There is a proof of the product rule for limits given here:

Calculus/Proofs of Some Basic Limit Rules - Wikibooks, open books for an open world
Hmm..? That Was a confusing one but I think I am suposed to show $$f(x)g(x)<\epsilon$$ cause $$\epsilon>0$$ right? In the delta epsilon proof we say $$\epsilon>0$$ I am wrong or?

Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$
 

Attachments

  • MHBcalculus1.png
    MHBcalculus1.png
    4.4 KB · Views: 103
What do you mean by the function $g(x)$ is limited ?
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
What do you mean by the function $g(x)$ is limited ?
I mean that it's not infinity if I Also understand correct, it'S bound like $$\sin(\theta)•0$$ and $$\sin(\theta)$$ is limited so it equal 0. Does this make sense?
 
There is a difference between a sequence being bounded or convergent because a bounded sequence might not be convergent take for example $$a_n=(-1)^n$$
while the sequence is bounded $$|a_n|\leq 1$$ it doesn't converge.
 
Hello,
this is the proof that I find on My notebook and can't understand this $$|g(x)|\leq B$$
e8swar.jpg


Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

Replies
25
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K