How Does the Normalization of a Wave Function Work?

[sameh1]

hello

i attached my question if i can get some help

i think that there is another way to solve this problem

 

[kuruman]

Your algebra is faulty.

$$\int_0^{2\pi}sin\phi d\phi=0$$

Over a complete cycle for a sine (or cosine) you have as much positive area "under the curve" as you have negative.