How Does the Second Quantized Field Operator Act on a Two-Fermion Wave Function?

[Einj]

I have a doubt on the second quantization formalism. Suppose that we have two spin-1/2 fermions which can have just two possible quantum number, 1 and 2. Consider the wave function:
$$
\psi(r_1,r_2)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\psi_1(r_1)\psi_2(r_2)-\psi_1(r_2)\psi_2(r_1)\right).
$$
The second quantized field is defined as:
$$
\Psi(r)=\sum_{k=1}^2a_k\psi_k(r),
$$
where a_k are the annihilation operators for fermions, i.e. anti-commuting with each other.

What's the action of \Psi(r) on the wave function \psi(r_1,r_2)?

 

[Bill_K]

I have a doubt on the second quantization formalism. Suppose that we have two spin-1/2 fermions which can have just two possible quantum number, 1 and 2. Consider the wave function:
$$
\psi(r_1,r_2)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\psi_1(r_1)\psi_2(r_2)-\psi_1(r_2)\psi_2(r_1)\right).
$$
The second quantized field is defined as:
$$
\Psi(r)=\sum_{k=1}^2a_k\psi_k(r),
$$
where a_k are the annihilation operators for fermions, i.e. anti-commuting with each other.

What's the action of \Psi(r) on the wave function \psi(r_1,r_2)?

In second quantization, the field operator doesn't act on a wavefunction at all, it acts on an abstract state vector in Fock space.

Be careful to keep straight the meaning of the subscripts in the two examples. In your first-quantized wavefunction, the subscripts refer to particle 1 or particle 2. But in the expression for the second-quantized field operator, the subscript k is used to indicate a single-particle state, not a particle.

 

[Einj]

Got it! Thank you