How to calculate the four-momentum of a photon in FRW Metric

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To calculate the four-momentum of a photon in the Friedmann-Robertson-Walker (FRW) metric, one can utilize the Lagrangian mechanics approach, which simplifies the process. The Lagrangian is expressed as L = g_{ij}(dx^i/dλ)(dx^j/dλ) = -\dot{t}^2 + a^2(t)(\dot{r}^2 + r^2\dot{\theta}^2 + r^2\sin^2\theta \dot{\phi}^2). The four-momentum components can be derived by taking the partial derivatives of the Lagrangian with respect to the generalized velocities, specifically p_i = ∂L/∂(dx^i/dλ). Additionally, the geodesic equation can also be employed to calculate the four-momentum, which aligns with the professor's preferred method. Understanding both approaches provides a comprehensive view of the problem.
JohnH123
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Homework Statement
Find the 4-momentum of a photon moving in the x-direction. That is, find dt/dλ
and dx/dλ as functions of a. Note that dt/dλ at a = 1 is the present-day frequency f0.
Relevant Equations
The spatially flat Robertson-Walker Metric: ds^2 = -dt^2 + a^2(t)[dr^2+r^2(dtheta^2 + sin^2(theta)dphi^2)]
I have calculated the Christoffel symbols for the above given metric, but I don't understand how to calculate a photon's four-momentum using this information. I believe it has something to do with the null geodesic equation but I can't understand how to put that information into the problem. Thank you.
 
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This problem can be done using geodesic equation of motion. But there is a simpler way to do using Lagrangian mechanics. The Lagrangian of the given metric is:
##L= g_{ij}\frac{dx^i}{d\lambda}\frac{dx^j}{d\lambda}= -\dot t^2+ a^2(t)(\dot r^2+ r^2 \dot \theta^2+ r^2 \sin^2\theta \dot \phi^2) ##

Now, the momentum is :
##p_i=\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot x_i}##
Now, simplify it for example using the fact that metric is isotropic to evaluate ##r_{th}## component of momentum. For ##t## component, you will get same result as geodesic equation. Solve it (again using the fact that metric is isotropic to remove ##\theta## and ##\phi## components from metric).
 
Abhishek11235 said:
This problem can be done using geodesic equation of motion. But there is a simpler way to do using Lagrangian mechanics. The Lagrangian of the given metric is:
##L= g_{ij}\frac{dx^i}{d\lambda}\frac{dx^j}{d\lambda}= -\dot t^2+ a^2(t)(\dot r^2+ r^2 \dot \theta^2+ r^2 \sin^2\theta \dot \phi^2) ##

Now, the momentum is :
##p_i=\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot x_i}##
Now, simplify it for example using the fact that metric is isotropic to evaluate ##r_{th}## component of momentum. For ##t## component, you will get same result as geodesic equation. Solve it (again using the fact that metric is isotropic to remove ##\theta## and ##\phi## components from metric).
Just so I’m clear, ##\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot x_i}## means the partial of the lagrangian with respect to each coordinate right? So the four momentum has components in coordinates {t, r, ##\theta##, ##\phi##}, so those components are found by finding ##\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot t}##, ##\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot r}## and so on, correct?
 
Abhishek11235 said:
This problem can be done using geodesic equation of motion. But there is a simpler way to do using Lagrangian mechanics. The Lagrangian of the given metric is:
##L= g_{ij}\frac{dx^i}{d\lambda}\frac{dx^j}{d\lambda}= -\dot t^2+ a^2(t)(\dot r^2+ r^2 \dot \theta^2+ r^2 \sin^2\theta \dot \phi^2) ##

Now, the momentum is :
##p_i=\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot x_i}##
Now, simplify it for example using the fact that metric is isotropic to evaluate ##r_{th}## component of momentum. For ##t## component, you will get same result as geodesic equation. Solve it (again using the fact that metric is isotropic to remove ##\theta## and ##\phi## components from metric).
Also, could you please expand on how I could calculate the four-momentum using the geodesic equation? I believe that’s the method my professor would like me to use, as stated in the problem. Thank you.
 
So is there some elegant way to do this or am I just supposed to follow my nose and sub the Taylor expansions for terms in the two boost matrices under the assumption ##v,w\ll 1##, then do three ugly matrix multiplications and get some horrifying kludge for ##R## and show that the product of ##R## and its transpose is the identity matrix with det(R)=1? Without loss of generality I made ##\mathbf{v}## point along the x-axis and since ##\mathbf{v}\cdot\mathbf{w} = 0## I set ##w_1 = 0## to...

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