How to express a function as a function of another function?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the problem of expressing one function as a function of another, specifically how to derive a function y = h(z) from given functions y = f(x) and z = g(x). The scope includes theoretical exploration and mathematical reasoning regarding the existence of inverses and their implications.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant seeks to express y as a function of z, providing an example with specific functions.
  • Another participant suggests inverting g to find x in terms of z, leading to the expression f(g-1(z)).
  • A later reply acknowledges the ease of the process when the inverse exists but questions the approach when an inverse does not exist.
  • Participants discuss the conditions under which a function may not have an inverse, suggesting that it would be unusual for a function not to have at least a local inverse.
  • There is a mention of the potential difficulty in writing down the inverse function explicitly, with a reference to using computational tools as a workaround.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that inverting the function g is a valid approach when possible. However, there is uncertainty regarding the situation when an inverse does not exist, and the discussion remains unresolved on how to handle such cases.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the assumption that g has an inverse and the potential complexity of deriving that inverse function. The discussion does not resolve how to proceed when an inverse is not easily obtainable.

mnb96
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Hello,

I would like to know how I could approach the following problem. I am given two functions y=f(x) and z=g(x), and I would like to express the first function as a function of the second one: that is, y = h(z), where h is not necessarily a linear function of z.

One explicit example could be: y=\frac{x}{a} z=\frac{x}{a+b}

where the goal is to find a function h such that y=h(z)
 
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hello mnb96! :smile:

invert g (if you can) …

x = g-1(z)

f(x) = f(g-1(z)) :wink:
 
Ups...:)

You are right. When the inverse for g exists, it is pretty easy. Thanks.
I was wondering if it is still possible to do something when an inverse does not exist, although this goes slightly beyond the original question.
 
mnb96 said:
I was wondering if it is still possible to do something when an inverse does not exist, although this goes slightly beyond the original question.

it'd have to be a pretty weird function not to have at least a local inverse :wink:
 
tiny-tim said:
it'd have to be a pretty weird function not to have at least a local inverse :wink:

Indeed... but while they may have a inverse, it may be hard (or even impossible) to write down this inverse function... unless "cheating" is allowed, like using functions like Maple's RootOf( f(x) ) ...
 
coelho said:
Indeed... but while they may have a inverse, it may be hard (or even impossible) to write down this inverse function...

but we can still write it as g-1 :wink:
 

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