Undergrad How to Find the Berry Phase in Slowly Varying Systems

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The discussion focuses on finding the Berry phase in slowly varying systems by solving the Schrödinger equation with a time-dependent parameter vector. The proposed trial solution involves eigenstates of the Hamiltonian and includes terms for both the phase and the Berry connection. A key point of confusion arises regarding the derivation of the term for the Berry phase, specifically how to express the relationship between the time derivative of the phase and the eigenstates. The participants clarify that applying the inner product to the equations helps in deriving the necessary relationships, leading to a better understanding of the normalization of eigenstates. The conversation concludes with a realization about the normalization of the eigenstates, which is crucial for the calculations.
ergospherical
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I was trying to follow this page:
https://phyx.readthedocs.io/en/latest/TI/Lecture notes/2.html

With ##|n(\mathbf{R})\rangle## being the eigenstates of ##H|\mathbf{R} \rangle## of eigenvalue ##E_n(\mathbf{R})##, the task is to solve the Schroedinger equation ##i | \dot{\psi}(t) \rangle = H(\mathbf{R}(t)) |\psi(t)\rangle## when the parameter vector ##\mathbf{R}(t)## varies slowly with time. They suggest the trial solution\begin{align*}
|\psi(t)\rangle = e^{i\gamma_n(t)} e^{-i\phi_n(t)} |n(\mathbf{R}(t))\rangle
\end{align*}with ##\phi_n(t) = \displaystyle{\int}_{0}^t E_n(\mathbf{R}(t')) dt'##. I obtain (omitting functional dependencies for clarity)\begin{align*}
|\dot{\psi}\rangle &= e^{i\gamma_n } e^{-i\phi_n}(i\dot{\gamma}_n |n\rangle - i \dot{\phi}_n |n\rangle+ |\dot{n}\rangle ) \\
&= e^{i\gamma_n} e^{-i\phi_n }(i\dot{\gamma}_n |n\rangle - i E_n |n\rangle+ |\dot{n}\rangle )
\end{align*}so putting ##|\dot{\psi}\rangle = -iH |\psi \rangle = -iE_n e^{i\gamma} e^{-i\phi} |n\rangle## gives\begin{align*}
|\dot{n}\rangle = -i\dot{\gamma}_n |n\rangle
\end{align*}which looks like what they got. Now I'm trying to figure out how they solved for ##\gamma_n##, viz:\begin{align*}
\gamma_n(\mathcal{C}) = \int_{\mathcal{C}} i \langle n(\mathbf{R}) | \nabla_{\mathbf{R}} n(\mathbf{R}) \rangle d\mathbf{R} \ \ \ (\dagger)
\end{align*}I assume that ##\mathcal{C}## is a path in ##\mathbf{R}##-space, parameterised by time ##t##? In other words,\begin{align*}
i\gamma_n(t) &= -\int_0^t \langle n(\mathbf{R}(t') | \nabla_{\mathbf{R}(t')} n(\mathbf{R}(t')) \rangle \dot{\mathbf{R}}(t') dt' \\
i\dot{\gamma}_n(t) &= - \langle n(\mathbf{R}(t) | \nabla_{\mathbf{R}(t)} n(\mathbf{R}(t)) \rangle \dot{\mathbf{R}}(t)
\end{align*}From here (again omitting functional depencies for clarity), I'm not totally sure how to show that ##i\dot{\gamma}_n |n \rangle = -|\dot{n}\rangle##, so that ##(\dagger)## is indeed a solution of the differential equation. I had the idea to re-write\begin{align*}
| \nabla_{\mathbf{R}} n \rangle \dot{\mathbf{R}} = |\dot{n} \rangle
\end{align*}so that\begin{align*}
i\dot{\gamma}_n |n \rangle &= - \langle n |\dot{n} \rangle | n \rangle = -| n \rangle \langle n |\dot{n} \rangle
\end{align*}but the RHS doesn't look quite like ##|\dot{n}\rangle##, since the identity operator is rather a sum ##\displaystyle{\sum_n} | n \rangle \langle n |## over ##n##. Where did I go wrong?
 
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So you've got $$|\dot{n}\rangle = -i\dot{\gamma}_n |n\rangle ,$$ which as you've correctly pointed out can be re-written as
$$\nabla_{\mathbf{R}} | n \rangle \cdot \dot{\mathbf{R}} = -i\dot{\gamma}_n |n\rangle, $$ now apply ##\langle n |## to both sides and you get $$\langle n |\nabla_{\mathbf{R}} | n \rangle \cdot \dot{\mathbf{R}} = -i\dot{\gamma}_n, $$ then just take the integral.
 
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Likes vanhees71 and ergospherical
Got it, thanks! I hadn't realized that the eigenstates ##|n\rangle## are normalised :)
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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