How to Prove Inequality for Equivalent Distances?

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mnb96
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Hello,
two distances [itex]d_1[/itex] and [itex]d_2[/itex] are said to be equivalent if for any two pairs (a,b) and (c,d)

[tex]d_1(a,b)=d_1(c,d) \Leftrightarrow d_2(a,b)=d_2(c,d)[/tex]

How can I (dis)prove that:

[tex]d_1(a,b)<d_1(c,d) \Rightarrow d_2(a,b)<d_2(c,d)[/tex]
 
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Use "trichotomy". For any two real numbers, x and y, one and only one of these must apply:
1) x= y
2) x< y
3) y< x.

If [itex]d_1(a, b)< d_1(c, d)[/itex] then it is NOT possible that [itex]d_1(a,b)= d_1(c, d)[/itex] nor that [itex]d_1(c, d)> d_1(a, b)[/itex] which implies the same for [itex]d_2(a, b)[/itex] and [itex]d_2(c, d)[/itex].
 
There is still something bugging my mind.
I think the part of your proof that is giving me troubles is this:
HallsofIvy said:
...which implies the same for [itex]d_2(a, b)[/itex] and [itex]d_2(c, d)[/itex].

How did you prove that "it implies the same for d2(a,b) and d2(c,d)"

Thanks in advance.
 
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