How to prove that a set is a group? related difficult/challenge quesyion.

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the criteria for proving that a set is a group, focusing on the necessity of demonstrating the uniqueness of inverse elements and the implications of showing the existence of left inverses versus right inverses. The scope includes theoretical aspects of group theory and mathematical reasoning.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants argue that showing the existence of an inverse element for each element is sufficient, without needing to demonstrate its uniqueness.
  • Others contend that if multiplication is associative, then the uniqueness of inverses follows, suggesting that proving uniqueness is redundant.
  • A participant proposes a structured approach to proving group properties, emphasizing the importance of establishing identities and inverses in a specific order.
  • Several participants raise questions about the necessity of showing both left and right inverses, and whether demonstrating the existence of just one type is adequate.
  • One participant challenges the clarity of earlier statements, suggesting that they lack sufficient evidence to be considered arguments.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the necessity of proving the uniqueness of inverses and the sufficiency of left versus right inverses. No consensus is reached on these points, indicating ongoing debate.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights potential ambiguities in definitions and the implications of various axioms in group theory, particularly regarding identities and inverses. Some assumptions about the properties of operations are not fully explored.

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"How to prove that a set is a group?" related difficult/challenge quesyion.

1.In proving that a set is a group from definition, we have to show there is an inverse element for each element, do we have to show uniqueness of it?
I believe this is unnecessary but people do this all the time.
My argument:
"For each [itex]a\in G[/itex], there exists a left inverse a' in G such that a'a=e." is enough.
 
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Provided you have shown the multiplication is associative then the inverse has to be unique.
 


Simon_Tyler said:
Provided you have shown the multiplication is associative then the inverse has to be unique.

so in proving a set is a group it is redundant to show the uniqueness of inverse(just show existence is ok)?
 


It's only unnecessary if you have already proved that the axioms (xy)z=x(yz), ex=x and x-1x=e define a group. (The standard axioms are (xy)z=x(yz), ex=xe=x and x-1x=xx-1x=e). This is a bit tricky. Define a "left identity" to be an element e such that ex=x for all x, and a "left e-inverse" of x to be an element y such that yx=e. You can prove the theorem by proving all of the following, in this order.

1. There's at most one right identity.
2. If y is a left e-inverse to x, then x is a left e-inverse of y.
3. e is a right identity (which by #1 must be unique).
4. There's at most one left identity. (This means that e is an identity and is unique).
5. Every left-e inverse is a right e-inverse. (Hint: Use 2).
6. Every x has at most one left inverse. (This means that every element has a unique inverse).

If you've done this once, or if this is a theorem in your book, then all you have to do to verify that the structure you're considering is a group is to verify that the alternative axioms stated above are satisfied.
 


It seems two different questions are asked:
(1) Is it enough to show that each element has an inverse, instead of in addition showing this inverse is unique?
(2) Is it enought to show that each element has a LEFT inverse, instead of showing that each element has both a right and a left inverse?

Or is it

(3) Is it enought to show that each element has a LEFT inverse, instead of showing that each element has both a right and a left inverse and that these are unique?
 


Landau said:
It seems two different questions are asked:
(1) Is it enough to show that each element has an inverse, instead of in addition showing this inverse is unique?
(2) Is it enought to show that each element has a LEFT inverse, instead of showing that each element has both a right and a left inverse?

Or is it

(3) Is it enought to show that each element has a LEFT inverse, instead of showing that each element has both a right and a left inverse and that these are unique?

I use (2) as my argument for (1). I know that (2) is valid so (2) implys (1)?
 


jessicaw said:
I use (2) as my argument for (1). I know that (2) is valid so (2) implys (1)?
Suppose that y and y' are left e-inverses of x, and z is a right e-inverse of x. Then y'x=yx, and if you multiply by z from the right, you get y'=y. Is that what you wanted to know? I'm not sure I understand what you're asking.

By the way, in both #1 and #6, you're referring to a mere statement as an "argument". It's not an argument if it doesn't include some evidence for the claim.
 

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