How to Show Equality of Probabilities?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating the equality of probabilities involving two events, \(A\) and \(B\), within a discrete probability space. Participants explore various approaches to proving the expression \(P(A\cap B)-P(A)P(B)=P(A^c)P(B)-P(A^c\cap B)\), considering independence and the properties of probability measures.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests simplifying the expression by rewriting \(P(A^c\cap B)\) and questions the best approach to show the desired equality.
  • Another participant notes that since \(A \cup A^c = \Omega\), it follows that \((A\cup A^c)\cap B = B\), and emphasizes that \(P(\Omega) = 1\).
  • A participant reiterates the disjoint nature of \(A\) and \(A^c\) and confirms the equality \(P(A\cup A^c) = P(A) + P(A^c)\).
  • One participant derives that \(P(B) = P(A\cap B) + P(A^c\cap B)\) and explores the implications of substituting values for \(P(B)\) to check for valid probabilities.
  • Another participant confirms the correctness of the previous claims and calculations.
  • Discussion includes checking specific values for \(P(B)\) and determining their validity based on the derived expressions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the correctness of the mathematical steps taken, but there is no consensus on the implications of the specific values for \(P(B)\) as they lead to conflicting conclusions regarding valid probabilities.

Contextual Notes

The discussion involves assumptions about the independence of events and the properties of probability measures, which are not fully resolved. The implications of specific probability values lead to contradictions that remain unaddressed.

mathmari
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Hey! :giggle:

Let $(\Omega, p)$ be a discrete probability room with induced probability measure $P$ and let $A, B\subseteq \Omega$ be two events.
I want to show that $P(A\cap B)-P(A)P(B)=P(A^c)P(B)-P(A^c\cap B)$.

For that do we write to what for example $P(A^c\cap B)$ is equal to simplify the expression or which way is the best one? :unsure:

We have that $(A\cap B)\cap (A^c\cap B)=\emptyset$ and so \begin{align*}&P((A\cap B)\cup (A^c\cap B))=P(A\cap B)+P (A^c\cap B)\\ & \Rightarrow P((A\cup A^c)\cap B)=P(A\cap B)+P (A^c\cap B)\end{align*}
Now we have to show that $P((A\cup A^c)\cap B)=P(A)P(B)+P(A^c)P(B)=[P(A)+P(A^c)]P(B)$, right?
We get that result if $(A\cup A^c)$ and $B$ are independent, or not? How can we show that? :unsure:

Or is there an other (better) way to show the desired expression? :unsure:
 
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Hey mathmari!

We have that $(A\cup A^c)=\Omega$ and $B\subseteq \Omega$.
So $(A\cup A^c)\cap B=B$. 🤔

Also note that a probability measure must have $P(\Omega)=1$.
And since $A$ and $A^c$ are disjoint, we also have $P(A\cup A^c)=P(A)+P(A^c)$. 🤔
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
We have that $(A\cup A^c)=\Omega$ and $B\subseteq \Omega$.
So $(A\cup A^c)\cap B=B$. 🤔

Also note that a probability measure must have $P(\Omega)=1$.
And since $A$ and $A^c$ are disjoint, we also have $P(A\cup A^c)=P(A)+P(A^c)$. 🤔

So do we have the following ?

\begin{align*}&P((A\cap B)\cup (A^c\cap B))=P(A\cap B)+P (A^c\cap B) \\ & \Rightarrow P((A\cup A^c)\cap B)=P(A\cap B)+P (A^c\cap B)\\ &\Rightarrow P( B)=P(A\cap B)+P (A^c\cap B)\end{align*} and \begin{align*}P(A)P(B)+P(A^c)P(B)&=[P(A)+P(A^c)]P(B)\\ & =[P(A)+1-P(A))]P(B)\\ & =P(B)\end{align*} Combining these results we get \begin{align*}
&P(A\cap B)+P (A^c\cap B)=P(A)P(B)+P(A^c)P(B) \\ & \Rightarrow P(A\cap B)-P(A)P(B)=P(A^c)P(B)-P(A^c\cap B)\end{align*}
Is everything correct? :unsure:
 
Yep. All correct. (Nod)
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
Yep. All correct. (Nod)

Great! (Sun)

Suppose we have that $P(A)=0.8$ and $P(A\cap B)=0.4$.

I want to check if $P(B)=0.3$ and $P(B)=0.7$ is possible.

For $P(B)=0.3$ : We substitute at the above proven equality and since we get then $P(A^c\cap B)=-0.1$ and since a probability cannot be negativ $P(B)$ cannot be $0.3$.

For $P(B)=0.7$ : Substituting at the above equality we get an acceptable probability. But substituting at $P(A\cup B)=P(A)+P(B)-P(A\cap B)$ we get that $P(A\cup B)=1.1$ and since a probability cannot be greater than $1$ $P(B)$ cannot be $0.7$.

Is everything correct? :unsure:
 
Yep. (Nod)p

We can verify by drawing a Venn diagram. (Nerd)
 
Last edited:

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