How to Solve the Definite Integral for Deriving Saha's Equation?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the definite integral involved in deriving Saha's equation, specifically the integral \(\int\limits_0^\infty \frac{x^{2}}{e^{x}+1}dx\). Participants explore various methods to evaluate this integral, discussing both elementary and complex analysis approaches.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses uncertainty about the integrability of the given definite integral.
  • Another participant cites Mathematica's output, suggesting the integral evaluates to \(\frac{3}{2} \zeta(3)\), where \(\zeta\) is the Riemann zeta function.
  • A different participant asserts that the integral is doable and identifies it as the Fermi-Dirac integral \(F_2(0)\).
  • Another suggestion involves using Cauchy's theorem and complex analysis to potentially solve the integral.
  • A detailed elementary solution is provided, involving substitutions and integration by parts, leading to the same conclusion as the Mathematica output.
  • Several participants express appreciation for the provided solution, indicating engagement with the mathematical process.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no consensus on the method of evaluation, as participants propose different approaches, including both elementary and complex analysis techniques. Some participants agree on the final result, but the methods to arrive at that result vary.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes various mathematical techniques and assumptions, such as the use of series expansions and integration by parts, which may depend on the participants' familiarity with advanced calculus and special functions.

Who May Find This Useful

Readers interested in mathematical methods for evaluating integrals, particularly in the context of statistical mechanics and quantum statistics, may find this discussion relevant.

Ichimaru
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I'm trying to derive Saha's equation, and I've come up against this definite integral, which I can't seem to find anywhere and may not even be doable; I'm not sure.

\begin{equation}

\int\limits_0^\infty \frac{x^{2}}{e^{x}+1}dx

\end{equation}

Can anyone help? Thanks!
 
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It's doable. That's essentially the Fermi-Dirac integral F2(0).
 
Presumably, traipsing along a different curve in the complex plane, using Cauchy's theorem, might give you the answer.
 
Here is a more elementary solution:

Rewrite the given integral as:
$$I=\int_0^{\infty} \frac{x^2e^{-x}}{1+e^{-x}}\,dx$$
Use the substitution ##e^{-x}=t## to obtain:
$$I=\int_0^1 \frac{\ln^2 t}{1+t}\,dt$$
Next, use integration by parts in the following way:
$$I=\left(\ln^2t \ln(1+t)\right|_0^1-2\int_0^1 \frac{2\ln t\ln(1+t)}{t}\,dt$$
Notice that the first term is zero, so we are left with:
$$I=-2\int_0^1 \frac{\ln t \ln(1+t)}{t}\,dt$$
Since,
$$\ln(1+t)=-\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^kt^k}{k}$$
Hence,
$$I=2\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{k}\int_0^1 \frac{t^k\ln t}{t}\,dt$$
It is not difficult to show that
$$\int_0^1 \frac{t^k\ln t}{t}\,dt =-\frac{1}{k^2}$$
From above, we get:
$$I=-2\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{k^3}$$
It can be easily shown that
$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{k^3}=-\frac{3}{4}\zeta(3)$$
Hence, the final answer is:
$$I=\frac{3}{2}\zeta(3)$$
which agrees with post #2.

I hope that helps.
 
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Cool, Pranav-Arora!
:smile:
 
arildno said:
Cool, Pranav-Arora!
:smile:

Thank you! :)
 

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