B I had a question about a way to write Euler's identity

AI Thread Summary
Euler's identity, e^(iπ) + 1 = 0, is a fundamental equation in mathematics that connects five key constants. The discussion clarifies that the expression e^(iπ) cannot be rewritten as e * -1/e = -1 without proper context, as this misrepresents the identity. It is emphasized that the same logic does not apply to integers, as a^π*i does not equal a * -1/a = -1. The inquiry about whether imaginary numbers can yield negative results from positive integers through exponentiation is addressed, highlighting the complexities of complex exponentiation. Overall, the conversation aims to clarify misconceptions surrounding Euler's identity and its implications.
jeremyrijsdijk
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since euler's identity states e^pi*i+-1 is it okay to write down e^pi*= e * -1/e = -1 and would for integers the same rule apply where a^pi*i= a * -1/a = -1 or is it only for the constant e?
this might be a stupid question, but i cant find an answer and im curious
 
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jeremyrijsdijk said:
since euler's identity states e^pi*i+-1 is it okay to write down e * -1/e = -1
That is not right at all! You can evaluate that expression on a calculator.

jeremyrijsdijk said:
would for integers the same rule apply where a^pi*i= a * -1/a = -1
Definitely not!
 
The correct identity using Latex to display it properly:

##e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0##

It contains five of the most famous mathematical constants:

- 0 The additive identity
- 1 The multiplicative identity
- i The imaginary unit
- ##e## base of the natural logarithms
- ##\pi## ratio of the circle circumference to its diameter

What's remarkable is that ##e## and ##\pi## are both transcendental numbers that, when combined above, produce an integer value.
 
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jeremyrijsdijk said:
e^pi*= e * -1
PeroK said:
That is not right at all! You can evaluate that expression on a calculator.


Definitely not!
for any integer a * - 1/a = -1 so why isnt e^pi*i the same as the formula a *-1/a? since it has the same outcome? im not a math major, im in highschool i was just curious.
 
jeremyrijsdijk said:
im not a math major, im in highschool
(I Changed the thread prefix from "A" = Advanced/Graduate School level discussion to "B" = Basic High School level discussion.)
 
PeroK said:
That is not right at all! You can evaluate that expression on a calculator.
It is correct (when the parentheses OP should have introduced are placed and the missing i is returned). However, the question is why OP would think it is even relevant to rewrite it like that …
 
Orodruin said:
It is correct (when the parentheses OP should have introduced are placed and the missing i is returned). However, the question is why OP would think it is even relevant to rewrite it like that …
I was wondering if there is a way to get a positive integer to be negative after purely powering it by a certain value, and since euler’s identity is the only thing I could find which gave a negative result after a power, I wondered if imaginary numbers are able to have such qualities. I don’t get all the scrutiny, I think it’s unnecessary for such an innocent question.
 
jeremyrijsdijk said:
I don’t get all the scrutiny, I think it’s unnecessary for such an innocent question.
Not really "scrutiny", just a bunch of people with advanced degrees (check our Profile/About pages) trying to help a newbie with their inquisitive questions. I'll send you a PM to help you understand how to use LaTeX to post math here at PF, which will improve your questions a lot. :smile:
 
jeremyrijsdijk said:
I was wondering if there is a way to get a positive integer to be negative after purely powering it by a certain value, and since euler’s identity is the only thing I could find which gave a negative result after a power, I wondered if imaginary numbers are able to have such qualities. I don’t get all the scrutiny, I think it’s unnecessary for such an innocent question.
You can read about complex exponents here:

https://brilliant.org/wiki/complex-exponentiation/
 
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berkeman said:
Not really "scrutiny", just a bunch of people with advanced degrees (check our Profile/About pages) trying to help a newbie with their inquisitive questions. I'll send you a PM to help you understand how to use LaTeX to post math here at PF, which will improve your questions a lot. :smile:
The question was just if a^iπ = a -\left( \frac 1 a\right)? Is there someone who can explain it to me? LaTeX does not seem to work from the device I am using, therefore I can not improve my questions your majesty. I was just looking for an answer to a simple question.:thumbup:
 
  • #11
jeremyrijsdijk said:
The question was just if a^iπ = a -\left( \frac 1 a\right)? Is there someone who can explain it to me? LaTeX does not seem to work from the device I am using
You forgot to put pairs of # or $ marks before and after. Adding them, we get ##a^iπ = a -\left( \frac 1 a\right)## (quote my post to see the LaTeX for that). I suspect you actually meant ##a^{iπ}= a \left( \frac {-1} a\right)##, which is a long winded way of writing ##a^{i\pi}=-1##, which is not correct, no.

Generally, you can write a complex number as ##Ae^{i\theta}## where ##A## is a non-negative real number and ##\theta## is an angle in radians. So we can put your ##a^{i\pi}##into a more convenient form by finding ##A## and ##\theta## for this case: $$\begin{eqnarray*}
a^{i\pi}&=&Ae^{i\theta}\\
i\pi\ln(a)&=&i\theta+\ln(A)
\end{eqnarray*}$$where we get the second line by taking the natural log of the first. Comparing real parts in the second line we get ##0=\ln(A)## which means ##A=1##. Comparing imaginary parts we get ##i\pi\ln(a)=i\theta## which means ##\theta=\pi\ln(a)##. So generally, ##a^{i\pi}=e^{i\pi\ln(a)}##. From the right hand side we can see that this will only be ##-1## if ##\ln(a)## is an odd integer - i.e. if ##a=e^n## where ##n## is odd.
 
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