Identical Fourier coefficients of continuous ##f,\varphi\Rightarrow f=\varphi##

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the equality of two continuous functions, ##f## and ##\varphi##, which share identical Fourier coefficients. It references a proof by Kolmogorov and Fomin, indicating that if the Fourier series of a periodic function ##f## converges uniformly to a continuous function ##\varphi##, then the continuity of both functions ensures that ##f=\varphi##. The key point is that the equality holds almost everywhere due to the properties of Lebesgue integrability.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier series and their convergence properties
  • Knowledge of Lebesgue square-integrable functions, specifically ##L^2[a,b]##
  • Familiarity with the concepts of uniform convergence and continuity in functional analysis
  • Basic principles of measure theory related to almost everywhere equality
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the proof of uniform convergence of Fourier series in Kolmogorov and Fomin's work
  • Explore the implications of Lebesgue integrability on Fourier coefficients
  • Learn about the properties of continuous functions in the context of Fourier analysis
  • Investigate measure theory concepts, particularly almost everywhere convergence
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Mathematicians, students of functional analysis, and anyone studying Fourier series and their applications in continuous functions.

DavideGenoa
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Hi, friends! Let ##f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{C}## be an http://librarum.org/book/10022/173 periodic function and let its derivative be Lebesgue square-integrable ##f'\in L^2[a,b]##. I have read a proof (p. 413 here) by Kolmogorov and Fomin of the fact that its Fourier series uniformly converges to a continuous function ##\varphi## whose Fourier coefficients are the same as the Fourier coefficients of ##f##.

I read in the same proof that, since ##\varphi## has the same Fourier coefficients of ##f##, because of the continuity of the two functions we get ##f=\varphi##. I do not understand why continuity guarantees the equality. Could anybody explain that?

I ##\infty##-ly thank you!
 
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I suspect that the answer is there: ##(f-\varphi)(x)=0## almost everywhere, if I correctly understand...
Thank you so much!
 

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