If a decreasing sequence has a convergent sum, does k*a_k approach zero?

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Homework Statement
Suppose {a_k} is a decreasing sequence of real numbers with a_k >= 0 for all k. Show that if a_1 + a_2 + ... converges, then lim k*a_k = 0. Is the converse true?

Relevant equations
Fact: If {a_k} is a sequence of real numbers such that a_1 + a_2 + ... converges, then lim a_k = 0.

The attempt at a solution
It seems to me that {a_k} would have to decrease faster than {1/k} in order for ka_k to converge to 0. For example, if {a_k} = {1/k}, lim k*a_k = 1. However, if {a_k} = {1/2^k}, then lim k*a_k = 0. This intuition has failed to lead me to the answer though. It has also come to my attention that if a_1 + a_2 + ... converges to A, that 0 <= lim k*a_k <= A, given that the limit exists. This fact however has also been unhelpful. Any tips?
 
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Suppose the limit k*a_k is not zero. That means that there is an e>0 such that k*a_k>e for an infinite number of different values of k. In particular you can find a subsequence k_i such that k_{i+1}>2*k_i for all i and k_i*A_{k_i}>e. Use that a_k is decreasing and think about how you can estimate the sum of the a_i for k_i<i<k_{i+1}.
 
The sum of the a_i for k_i<i<k_{i+1} is greater than or equal to the sum a_i for k_i < i <= 2k_i and that sum is greater than or equal to k_i*a_{2*k_i}. Where do we go from here?
 
There are more than k_{i+1}/2 terms in that group of terms and they are all greater than or equal to e/k_{i+1}. Hence?
 
Actually, there are less than k_{i+1}/2 since k_{i+1}/2 > k_i. And where do you get that the are >= e/k_{i+1}?
 
If k_{i+1}/2>k_{i} then k_{i+1}-k_{i}>k_{i+1}-k_{i+1}/2. I'm subtracting a LARGER number on the right side. And I picked a subsequence such that a_k_{i}*k_{i}>e and the a_k's are decreasing.
 
OK, I understand now. But I don't know what you want me to conclude. For any k, we have that a_1 > a_2 > ... > a_k > e/k. What is so special about k_{i+1}?
 
The point is that summing the terms between a_k_{i} and a_k_{i+1} gives you more than e/2. There are an infinite number of such intervals. In such a case the sum of the a_k must diverge. It's a proof by contradiction!
 
Wow. I honestly did not see that. Let me ask you: What led you to figure that there would be an infinite number of intervals in the sum of a_k that are greater than e/2? Did you look at a particular example?
 
It was the same intuition that made you say a_k must approach 0 faster than 1/k. The proof is roughly the same as the proof that a_k=1/k diverges. I looked at it and scratched my head for quite a while. It's not that easy. But no, particular examples aren't that helpful. Did you find the counterexample for the converse?
 
I've never seen the proof that a_k = 1/k diverges. You wrote "for quite a while", which I found funny since I've been scratching my head since yesterday.

This should work as a counter-example: Let a_k = 1/k^{3/2} so that k*a_k = 1/sqrt(k), which converges to 0, but the sum diverges.
 
Look up the proof, you'll see the resemblance. No, the sum of a_k=1/k^(3/2) does converge. It's a power series. You want something that diverges REALLY slowly. Slowly enough that the series is divergent but k*a_k still goes to zero.
 
Oops. I was thinking about the sum of 1/sqrt(k) which diverges. My mistake. Let me ponder and tinker with this tonight. Hopefully I'll have something by tomorrow.
 
BTW the elementary proof the harmonic series diverges is that the sum of 1/k from 1/2^k to 1/2^(k+1) is greater than 1/2. There are 2^k terms of size greater than 1/2^(k+1). Let me know what you find for the counterexample. There's a pretty easy one. It's just a LITTLE smaller than 1/k.
 
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I did some googling and found that the sum of [tex]\sqrt[n]{2} - 1[/tex] diverges slowly and also [tex]\lim_{n \to \infty} (\sqrt[n]{2} - 1) = 0[/tex]. I couldn't think of one as I don't really have a feel for these things yet.
 
I just had a flash: Were you thinking about 1/(k ln k)? That should work too, I think.
 
e(ho0n3 said:
I just had a flash: Were you thinking about 1/(k ln k)? That should work too, I think.

That's the one. An integral test shows it diverges, but k*(1/(k ln k)) goes to zero.