If T is diagonalizable then is restriction operator diagonalizable?

  • #1
CGandC
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TL;DR Summary
Does minimal polynomial zero out the linear operator restricted to any subspace?
The usual theorem is talking about the linear operator being restricted to an invariant subspace:
Let ##T## be a diagonalizable linear operator on the ##n##-dimensional vector space ##V##, and let ##W## be a subspace of ##V## which is invariant under ##T##. Prove that the restriction operator ##T_W## is diagonalizable.​
I had no problem understanding its proof, it appears here for example: https://math.stackexchange.com/ques...-t-w-is-diagonalizable-if-t-is-diagonalizable


However, I had difficulty understanding why we needed the assumption that ## W ## is ##T##-invariant, I mean - If ## m_T(x) ## is the minimal polynomial of ##T## so ## m_T(T)=0 ## and thus for any subspace ## W \subseteq V ## ( not necessarily ## T##-invariant ) ## m_T(T_W) =0 ##; so why in the above theorem it was necessary for ## W \subseteq V ## to be ## T ##-invariant?
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
pasmith
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If [itex]W[/itex] is not [itex]T[/itex]-invariant, then the matrix representation of [itex]T_W[/itex] is not square: it must include additional rows to account for the part of [itex]T_W(W)[/itex] which is not in [itex]W[/itex]. In what sense is this non-square matrix "diagonalizable"?

This theory is defined for linear maps [itex]T: V \to V[/itex] where the codomain is the same as the domain, rather than some different space. A restriction of [itex]T: V \to V[/itex] to a subspace [itex]W \subset V[/itex] will only qualify as such a map if we have [itex]T_W: W \to W[/itex], ie. [itex]W[/itex] is [itex]T[/itex]-invariant.
 
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  • #3
CGandC
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If [itex]W[/itex] is not [itex]T[/itex]-invariant, then the matrix representation of [itex]T_W[/itex] is not square: it must include additional rows to account for the part of [itex]T_W(W)[/itex] which is not in [itex]W[/itex]. In what sense is this non-square matrix "diagonalizable"?

This theory is defined for linear maps [itex]T: V \to V[/itex] where the codomain is the same as the domain, rather than some different space. A restriction of [itex]T: V \to V[/itex] to a subspace [itex]W \subset V[/itex] will only qualify as such a map if we have [itex]T_W: W \to W[/itex], ie. [itex]W[/itex] is [itex]T[/itex]-invariant.
Although it makes sense that the matrix representation of a diagonalizable operator should be square matrix, I still don't see how this knowledge is necessary for proving the theorem for non-invariant subspace since a linear operator is also called diagonalizable iff its minimal polynomial decomposes to distinct linear factors of multiplicity 1 - this theorem shows the definition of diagonalizability is independent of a matrix representation, thus the minimal polynomial of T restricted to some arbitrary subspace will still divide the minimal polynomial of T itself which is composed of different linear factors of multiplicity 1 thus the minimal polynomial of the restriction will also be composed of different linear factors of multiplicity 1, hence T restricted to some subspace will still be diagonal ( regardless of the subspace's invariance ); so I still don't see how the knowledge that the subspace should be invariant is required to prove the above theorem.
 
  • #4
CGandC
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Ok, I think I understand fully now what you have said.
The minimal polynomial is defined as the minimal polynomial which zeros out a square matrix.
The minimal polynomial is also defined for linear transformations whose domain is the same as the co-domain ( i.e. ## T: V \to V ## ) as the minimal polynomial which zeros such linear transformation.

So although it is true that ## m_T(T_W) =0 ## for arbitrary subspace ## W \subseteq V ##, it is undefined to talk about a minimal polynomial of ## T_W ## if ## W## is not ##T##-invariant since it isn't true that the domain is equal to the co-domain.

Am I correct?
 

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