If this correct please look - definite inegral

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The discussion focuses on evaluating the definite integral of the function 3x^2 - 5x - 6 over the interval [-4, 1] using the right-hand rule without shortcuts. The user presents a detailed step-by-step calculation involving limits and summations to arrive at the final result of 72.5. Additional insights include breaking down the area under the curve into segments and calculating contributions from each segment. The importance of dividing the interval into n pieces to approximate the area using rectangles is emphasized. The calculations aim to confirm the correctness of the integral evaluation process.
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The question:
Use the definiton of the definite inegral (with right hand rule) to evaluate the following integral. Show work please
Can NOT use shortcut method.. must be the long process

Function:
1
S (3x^2 - 5x - 6) dx
-4

Work:
∫[-4,1] (3x^2 - 5x - 6) dx =
lim[n-->∞] 5/n ∑[i=1 to n] {3(-4 + 5/n)² - 5(-4 + 5/n) - 6} =
lim[n-->∞] 5*∑[i=1 to n] (48/n - 120i/n² + 75i²/n³ + 20/n -25i/n² - 6/n) =
lim[n-->∞] 5*∑[i=1 to n] (62/n - 145i/n² + 75i²/n³) =
lim[n-->∞] 5[62n/n - 145n(n+1)/(2n²) + 75n(n+1)(2n+1)/(6n³)] =
5(62 - 145/2 + 25) = 72.5

∑[i=1 to n] 1 = n
∑[i=1 to n] i = n(n+1)/2
∑[i=1 to n] i² = n(n+1)(2n+1)/6


Please check if this is correct and let me know
 
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Hello,
In my opinion it may be,
Area under the curve
For 3n^2 [3(n^2)+3((2n)^2)+3((3n)^2)+..]n=3(1^2+2^2+3^2...)n^3=3x_i^2n^3

For 5n 5(n+2n+3n+...)n=5(1+2+3+...)n^2=5x_in^2

For 6 6n

\lim_{n\rightarrow 0}\sum_{i=1}^{5/n}(3x_i^2n^3-5x_in^2-6n)=\lim_{n\rightarrow0}\sum_{i=1}^{5/n}3x_i^2n^3-\lim_{n\rightarrow0}\sum_{i=1}^{5/n}5x_in^2-\lim_{n\rightarrow 0}\sum_{i=1}^{5/n}6n

Because we divide [-4,1] interval n pieces and the n pieces are our base of rectangles.Also our heights are the images on function of the little pieces.For example our base is n and our height is 3/n(interval of sum [1,5/n])). So our rectangle's area is (3(3/n)^2n^3-5(3/n)n^2-6n).If we sum the all of these areas and base converges to 0 then we get the true area at [-4,1].
 
Last edited:
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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