MHB If y = tan inverse (cot x) + cot inverse (tan x)

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The equation y = tan inverse (cot x) + cot inverse (tan x) simplifies to y = 2arctan(cot(x)). By taking the tangent of both sides, it leads to the relationship tan(y/2) = cot(x). This results in the expression y = π(2k+1) - 2x, where k is an integer. Consequently, the derivative dy/dx is calculated to be -2.
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if y = tan inverse (cot x) + cot inverse (tan x)
 
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Then what?
 
Why -2

- - - Updated - - -

y = tan inverse (cot x) + cot inverse (tan x)

How answer is -2
 
This is a calculus question...please don't continue to post calculus questions in other forums.

If given:

$$y=\arctan\left(\cot(x)\right)+\arccot\left(\tan(x)\right)$$

Then we should observe that:

$$\arccot\left(\tan(x)\right)=\arctan\left(\cot(x)\right)$$

And so we may write:

$$y=2\arctan\left(\cot(x)\right)$$

or:

$$\frac{y}{2}=\arctan\left(\cot(x)\right)$$

Now, we may take the tangent of both sides to get:

$$\tan\left(\frac{y}{2}\right)=\cot(x)$$

This implies (because of the relationship between co-functions and the periodicity of the tangent/cotangent functions):

$$\frac{y}{2}=\frac{\pi}{2}(2k+1)-x$$ where $$k\in\mathbb{Z}$$

or:

$$y=\pi(2k+1)-2x$$

Thus:

$$\d{y}{x}=-2$$
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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