This is a calculus question...please don't continue to post calculus questions in other forums.
If given:
$$y=\arctan\left(\cot(x)\right)+\arccot\left(\tan(x)\right)$$
Then we should observe that:
$$\arccot\left(\tan(x)\right)=\arctan\left(\cot(x)\right)$$
And so we may write:
$$y=2\arctan\left(\cot(x)\right)$$
or:
$$\frac{y}{2}=\arctan\left(\cot(x)\right)$$
Now, we may take the tangent of both sides to get:
$$\tan\left(\frac{y}{2}\right)=\cot(x)$$
This implies (because of the relationship between co-functions and the periodicity of the tangent/cotangent functions):
$$\frac{y}{2}=\frac{\pi}{2}(2k+1)-x$$ where $$k\in\mathbb{Z}$$
or:
$$y=\pi(2k+1)-2x$$
Thus:
$$\d{y}{x}=-2$$