I Incomplete geodesics in a singularity, do they warrant quantum concerns?

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The discussion centers on the implications of incomplete geodesics at singularities and whether this indicates a transition from classical to quantum physics. It is argued that while geodesics can be incomplete, they remain continuous and smooth within the manifold. The premise that singularities disrupt the continuity of the manifold is challenged, suggesting that the manifold itself remains a valid continuous set. The conversation also highlights the need for clarity in posing questions about the relationship between geodesics and quantum mechanics. Ultimately, the thread concludes with a note that speculation is not permitted in this context.
walkeraj
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Question: The idea of a continuum breaks down for a singularity when a geodesic become incomplete (the breaking of the idea that there was a continuous succession, where no part could be distinguished from neighboring parts, except by arbitrary division), and so with that does this indicate a scale change from classical to quantum? That is, is space-time necessarily geodesic incomplete at the quantum scale?
 
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walkeraj said:
Question: The idea of a continuum breaks down for a singularity when a geodesic become incomplete (the breaking of the idea that there was a continuous succession, where no part could be distinguished from neighboring parts, except by arbitrary division), and so with that does this indicate a scale change from classical to quantum? That is, is space-time necessarily geodesic incomplete at the quantum scale?
You question is not clear to me, but if you are talking about the continuity of the geodesic, then all geodesics, complete and incomplete, are continuous. If fact they are smooth as in differentiable.
 
walkeraj said:
The idea of a continuum breaks down for a singularity when a geodesic become incomplete
This is not correct. The "singularity" is not part of the manifold; the manifold itself is a perfectly valid continous open set.

The rest of your post is based on this invalid premise, and when that is corrected, your question is not well posed.
 
walkeraj said:
with that does this indicate a scale change from classical to quantum? That is, is space-time necessarily geodesic incomplete at the quantum scale?
This looks like personal speculation, which is off limits here.

This thread is now closed.
 
Moderator's note: Spin-off from another thread due to topic change. In the second link referenced, there is a claim about a physical interpretation of frame field. Consider a family of observers whose worldlines fill a region of spacetime. Each of them carries a clock and a set of mutually orthogonal rulers. Each observer points in the (timelike) direction defined by its worldline's tangent at any given event along it. What about the rulers each of them carries ? My interpretation: each...

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