Altabeh
- 657
- 0
kev said:OK, so we are talking about constant acceleration in all 3 dimensions. Now there is another problem. Since there is equal acceleration in all directions, how does a particle know which way to accelerate or does everything simply expand? Do we have to assume a coordinate centre to such a spacetime and assume everything either accelerates directly towards (or away?) from that coordinate centre? It seems such a gravitational system could not be isotropic, in the sense that any arbitrary location could be chosen as the centre.
I think the problem is that the definition of constant proper acceleration in a 4D spacetime is not so much well established but it is rather baffling and thus it takes me a few minutes writing some lines to get you to know how particles can find which way to accelerate.
I assume you've taken a look at Semay's metric introduced http://arxiv.org/pdf/physics/0601179v1" (early posts in this thread can also help you to get acquainted with it):
ds^2=(1+ax)^2dt^2-dx^2-dy^2-dz^2.
You can simply see that the curvature tensor vanishes for this metric, giving rise to a flat spacetime wherein a uniform gravitational potential can be considered locally which chalks up to equivalence principle. To verify this, let's check out the geodesic equations:
\ddot{x}=-a(1+ax)\dot{t}^2,
\ddot{y}=\ddot{z}=0,
\ddot{t}=\frac{-2a\dot{x}\dot{t}}{1+ax},
where the dot being the derivative wrt proper time. The aim is to show that for this metric, freely falling particles which follow timelike geodesics, are all accelerated the same locally and the proper acceleration is \ddot{x}=-a. As the second equations demonstrate, along y and z axes the proper accelerations are all zero. This is why the freely falling particles are able to find the path on which they can accelerate and fall in almost every other metric (sometimes as in Schwarzschild metric it gets so much twisted to get such a result and that is because the g_{rr} is not considered to be constant in contrast to this case)!
Solving the last equation for \dot{t} gives
\dot{t}=\frac{1}{(1+ax)^2}.
Introducing this into the first equation yields
\ddot{x}=\frac{-a}{(1+ax)^3}.
Therefore, for ax<<c^2, one gets \ddot{x}=-a that confirms the particles following timelike geodesics have constant proper acceleration locally. Sounds like particles know how to accelerate in Semay's spacetime! I see people use hovering particles at a constant x=x_0 to get global proper accelerations along the geodesics throughout the spacetime . Roughly speaking, this makes the motion boil down to a 2D spatial one so neglecting the general 3D motions in space! I think now you are convinced that on planes parallel to the yz plane the motion gains a constant proper acceleration, but as long as the planes turn to have a slope, the constancy of proper acceleration is guaranteed if one uses equivalence principle.
Now suppose the geodesic equations in a special Rindler's metric,
ds^2=e^{2ay}dt^2-dx^2-dy^2-dz^2.
Following calculations similar to those done for Semay, we can get
\ddot{x}=-ae^{-2ax}.
This is again for ax<<c^2, the result shown by Semay and thus we have a locally uniform gravitational field. But note that this metric is not flat, so that would not be possible to make it coincide with Semay's metric up to all orders in ax and thus you have to be careful not to think both are flat since the Taylor expansion of e^{2ax} is
1+2ax up to order 1 in ax. Rest assured that in this case, freely falling particles will find the way they can accelerate!
AB
Last edited by a moderator: