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Induction proof involving log(m+1) terms

  1. Aug 31, 2010 #1
    Any suggestions on how to simplify the log (m+1) terms that arise when proving the following statement using induction for m >= 1? (log to the base 2)

    [PLAIN]http://dl.dropbox.com/u/471735/recurrence%202.png [Broken]
    Last edited by a moderator: May 4, 2017
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 2, 2010 #2
    You don't need to use induction, because there is a straightforward method: note that log(m/2) = log(m) - 1 so your disequation becomes simply log(m) > 1 which is obvious for m > 1.
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