MHB Inequality Proof: $\dfrac{2015}{(k+1)(k+4030)}<\dfrac{1}{k+1}$

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The discussion focuses on proving the inequality $\dfrac{2015}{(k+1)(k+4030)}<\dfrac{1}{k+1}-\dfrac{1}{k+2}+\dfrac{1}{k+3}-\dfrac{1}{k+4}+\cdots+\dfrac{1}{k+4029}-\dfrac{1}{k+4030}$ for $k>0$. It establishes that this is a specific case of a broader inequality that can be proven by induction for $n\geqslant2$. The base case for $n=1$ results in equality, while the inductive step demonstrates that the strict inequality holds for $n=2$. The proof involves manipulating fractions and polynomials to confirm the inequality. The discussion concludes with a participant confirming their own proof using the induction method.
anemone
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Suppose $k>0$. Show that $\dfrac{2015}{(k+1)(k+4030)}<\dfrac{1}{k+1}-\dfrac{1}{k+2}+\dfrac{1}{k+3}-\dfrac{1}{k+4}+\cdots+\dfrac{1}{k+4029}-\dfrac{1}{k+4030}$.
 
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anemone said:
Suppose $k>0$. Show that $\dfrac{2015}{(k+1)(k+4030)}<\dfrac{1}{k+1}-\dfrac{1}{k+2}+\dfrac{1}{k+3}-\dfrac{1}{k+4}+\cdots+\dfrac{1}{k+4029}-\dfrac{1}{k+4030}$.
[sp]This is a special case ($n=2015$) of the inequality $$\frac n{(k+1)(k+2n)} < \frac{1}{k+1}-\dfrac{1}{k+2}+\dfrac{1}{k+3}-\dfrac{1}{k+4}+\ldots+\dfrac{1}{k+2n-1}-\dfrac{1}{k+2n},$$ which can be proved by induction for $n\geqslant2$.

In fact, the result almost holds for $n=1$ too, except that in this case the inequality becomes an equality, because $\dfrac1{(k+1)(k+2)} = \dfrac1{k+1} - \dfrac1{k+2}.$ So we can take this as the base case, provided that the proof of the inductive step involves a strict inequality. That will establish that the strict inequality occurs when $n=2$.

So suppose that the inequality holds for some value of $n$. Then $$\frac n{(k+1)(k+2n)} + \dfrac1{k+2n+1} - \dfrac1{k+2n+2} < \frac{1}{k+1}-\dfrac{1}{k+2}+\dfrac{1}{k+3}-\dfrac{1}{k+4}+\ldots+\dfrac{1}{k+2n+1}-\dfrac{1}{k+2n+2}.$$ Since $\dfrac1{k+2n+1} - \dfrac1{k+2n+2} = \dfrac1{(k+2n+1)(k+2n+2)},$ the left side of that inequality is equal to $\dfrac n{(k+1)(k+2n)} + \dfrac1{(k+2n+1)(k+2n+2)}.$

To establish the inductive step, we therefore need to show that $$\dfrac{n+1}{(k+1)(k+2n+2)} < \frac n{(k+1)(k+2n)} + \dfrac1{(k+2n+1)(k+2n+2)}.$$ Multiplying out the fractions, this is equivalent to showing that $$(n+1)(k+2n)(k+2n+1) < n(k+2n+1)(k+2n+2) + (k+1)(k+2n).$$ Now write both sides as polynomials in $k$ to see that this is equivalent to showing that $$(n+1)k^2 + (4n^2 + 5n + 1)k + 2n < (n+1)k^2 + (4n^2 + 5n + 1)k + 4n.$$ But since $4n>2n$, that last inequality obviously holds. That (somewhat inelegantly) establishes the inductive step and proves the result.[/sp]
 
Thanks for participating in this challenge, Opalg!

The solution that I have also prove the inequality with the induction method!(Smile)
 
I have been insisting to my statistics students that for probabilities, the rule is the number of significant figures is the number of digits past the leading zeros or leading nines. For example to give 4 significant figures for a probability: 0.000001234 and 0.99999991234 are the correct number of decimal places. That way the complementary probability can also be given to the same significant figures ( 0.999998766 and 0.00000008766 respectively). More generally if you have a value that...

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