- #1

- 893

- 25

## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi All,

I would like to know why in the infinite well problem, after having solved the time independent SE, we are not supposed to equal to zero the x derivative of the spatial part of the wave function at -L and L (2L being the total width). We only have to make it zero at the boundary.

Thanks a lot,

Best wishes,

DaTario

I would like to know why in the infinite well problem, after having solved the time independent SE, we are not supposed to equal to zero the x derivative of the spatial part of the wave function at -L and L (2L being the total width). We only have to make it zero at the boundary.

Thanks a lot,

Best wishes,

DaTario