Infinity over infinity squared

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the mathematical expression involving the logarithm and its squaring, specifically addressing whether the entire logarithm or just the term (1-x) in the denominator is squared. Participants agree that the conventional interpretation is that only the argument of the logarithm, (1-x), is squared, leading to expressions such as \ln^{2}(1-x) or (\ln(1-x))^{2}. This clarification is crucial for accurately solving the problem presented.

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Homework Statement



http://i.minus.com/jbwNvxhmIxeKxB.png

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm unclear on whether the entire log is being squared or if just the (1-x) term in the denominator is being squared. I know if it's the latter, then the exponent can be moved to in front of the log.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
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Qube said:

Homework Statement



http://i.minus.com/jbwNvxhmIxeKxB.png


The Attempt at a Solution



I'm unclear on whether the entire log is being squared or if just the (1-x) term in the denominator is being squared. I know if it's the latter, then the exponent can be moved to in front of the log.

I would say it's almost certainly the (1-x) that is squared.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Hi, there!
My interpretation is that it is only the argument of the log function that is squared.
Why?

Because if you wish to square the log, by far the most common conventions are either:
a) \ln^{2}(1-x)
b) (\ln(1-x))^{2}
 

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