This may be a very silly question, but still apologies, I read in Sheldon Axler, that the inner product of two orthogonal vectors is DEFINED to be 0.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Let u,v belong to C^n. I am unable to find a direction of proof which proves that for an nth dimension vector space, if u perp. to v, then <u,v> = 0

Is it really just defined ? Or it can be proved to be 0 ?

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# Inner Product Space of two orthogonal Vectors is 0 , Is this defined as it is ?

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