Undergrad Integration of the Outer Product of a Basis

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The discussion focuses on the integration of the outer product of a basis in quantum mechanics, specifically in the context of Griffiths' textbook. The main concern is justifying the movement of the integral sign and differential element outside the outer brackets when dealing with eigenstates and operators. There is confusion regarding the treatment of the position operator and momentum eigenstates, particularly in relation to their dependence on the variable x. The participant emphasizes the importance of understanding these principles to avoid future issues in assignments. Overall, the conversation highlights the complexities of quantum mechanics notation and integration techniques.
Prometheus18
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Hello all. I'm using Griffiths' Introduction to Quantum Mechanics (3rd ed., 2018), and have come across what, on the face of it, seems a fairly straightforward principle, but which I cannot justify to myself. It is used, tacitly, in the first equation in the following worked example:
Example-3-10.jpg


The putative justification is in the fact that the |x> eigenstates form a complete basis and the following identity, which I conpletely understand, holds:

Basis-Identity.jpg


My problem is this: How does one justify moving the integral sign and dx outside of the outer brackets here? There is integration over the right hand part, and even the state vector S(t), given that it's not a function of x, can be rightly brought inside the integral but how do we justify moving the <p|x part inside it, if there's no summation over that part (and x hat and p both obviously depend on x)?

To be honest, I also fail to understand the second legerdemain, mentioned this time by Mr Griffiths (below the first equation); it's true that x is, in a certain sense, an eigenvalue of |x>, of course, but only if we accept a continuous spectrum of eigenvalues; it fails to be an eigenvalue at all if it's a constant, which appears to negate what Mr Griffiths is saying, unless I'm mistaken.

I know most students would probably gloss over these sorts of issues on a worked example without a second thought but the way I see it is that that will cause issues further down the line on actual assignments.
 

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The position operator and the momentum eigenstate certainly don't depend on "x", he's just using very confusing notation here.
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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