jdstokes
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It is often stated that the transition amplitude between eigenstates of the free-field Hamiltonian H_0 is encoded by the S-matrix, defined by
\langle \mathrm{f} | U{_\mathrm{I}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle.
where U_{\mathrm{I}} is the time-evolution operator in the interaction picture (e.g., [1]).
I would argue that this is not correct, and that the correct expression should be
S_{\mathrm{fi}}=\langle \mathrm{f} | U_0(\infty,-\infty) U{_\mathrm{I}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle
where U_0(t,t') = \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i} H_0 (t-t')} is the time-evolution operator for the free-field.
My argument is quite simple, the transition amplitude in the Schrödinger picture is
\langle \mathrm{f} | U_{\mathrm{S}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle.
It is easy to show, however, that the Schrödinger evolution operator is related to the interaction evolution operator by U_{\mathrm{S}} = U_0 U_{\mathrm{I}}. My argument seems to be supported by [2]. However, it concerns me that this is not addressed in mainstream QFT books.
Does anyone have any word on this apparent discrepancy?
[1] Mandl and Shaw, Quantum Field Theory.
[2] http://www.nyu.edu/classes/tuckerman/stat.mechII/lectures/lecture_21/node3.html
\langle \mathrm{f} | U{_\mathrm{I}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle.
where U_{\mathrm{I}} is the time-evolution operator in the interaction picture (e.g., [1]).
I would argue that this is not correct, and that the correct expression should be
S_{\mathrm{fi}}=\langle \mathrm{f} | U_0(\infty,-\infty) U{_\mathrm{I}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle
where U_0(t,t') = \mathrm{e}^{-\mathrm{i} H_0 (t-t')} is the time-evolution operator for the free-field.
My argument is quite simple, the transition amplitude in the Schrödinger picture is
\langle \mathrm{f} | U_{\mathrm{S}} (\infty,-\infty)|\mathrm{i} \rangle.
It is easy to show, however, that the Schrödinger evolution operator is related to the interaction evolution operator by U_{\mathrm{S}} = U_0 U_{\mathrm{I}}. My argument seems to be supported by [2]. However, it concerns me that this is not addressed in mainstream QFT books.
Does anyone have any word on this apparent discrepancy?
[1] Mandl and Shaw, Quantum Field Theory.
[2] http://www.nyu.edu/classes/tuckerman/stat.mechII/lectures/lecture_21/node3.html