Invariant quantities for antimatter

1. Jul 26, 2006

actionintegral

Since antiparticles have reversed proper time, can I conclude that all invariants are reversed for antiparticles?

2. Jul 27, 2006

actionintegral

a tumbleweed rolls by...

3. Jul 27, 2006

pmb_phy

What exactly do you mean by this? I can't see anything which would imply such an assertion.

There is really no such thing as an "anti-particle." The meaning of the term "anti-particle" refers to opposite properties of a particle. E.g. one could define the term "neutron" to refer to what we normally call a 'neutron' and then refer to the 'anti-neutron' as "neutron." Thus what we call the "anti-particle" refers merely the opposite of a given particle. I.e. the anti-particle of the anti-neutron is the neutron.

The term "reversed proper time" makes no sense. The phrase "proper time" refers to the time between two events as the time as measured by a clock which travels on a specified worldline between the two events. This is true of all tardyon's (i.e. particles which travel at v < c).

Perhaps you're confusing this with tachyons??

Pete

4. Jul 27, 2006

Gokul43201

Staff Emeritus
5. Jul 27, 2006

actionintegral

6. Jul 28, 2006

pmb_phy

I don't think Feynman said that positrons move back in time. I believe what he said was that one could view a positron as an electron which is moving backwards in time.

Pete

7. Jul 28, 2006

actionintegral

Yes, I think I made an oversimplification in my mind. Let's continue this
after I do some more learning.

8. Jul 28, 2006

actionintegral

There is an old paper by Bondi about negative mass. Since I only have negative money, can someone send it to me?

9. Jul 28, 2006

pmb_phy

Sure. PM your email address to me and I'll send it to you within a day or so (since I'll have to find it and then scan it and convert it to PDF).

Pete

10. Jul 28, 2006