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Invariant quantities for antimatter

  1. Jul 26, 2006 #1
    Since antiparticles have reversed proper time, can I conclude that all invariants are reversed for antiparticles?
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 27, 2006 #2
    a tumbleweed rolls by...
  4. Jul 27, 2006 #3
    What exactly do you mean by this? I can't see anything which would imply such an assertion. :confused:

    There is really no such thing as an "anti-particle." The meaning of the term "anti-particle" refers to opposite properties of a particle. E.g. one could define the term "neutron" to refer to what we normally call a 'neutron' and then refer to the 'anti-neutron' as "neutron." Thus what we call the "anti-particle" refers merely the opposite of a given particle. I.e. the anti-particle of the anti-neutron is the neutron.

    The term "reversed proper time" makes no sense. The phrase "proper time" refers to the time between two events as the time as measured by a clock which travels on a specified worldline between the two events. This is true of all tardyon's (i.e. particles which travel at v < c).

    Perhaps you're confusing this with tachyons??

  5. Jul 27, 2006 #4


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  6. Jul 27, 2006 #5
  7. Jul 28, 2006 #6
    I don't think Feynman said that positrons move back in time. I believe what he said was that one could view a positron as an electron which is moving backwards in time.

  8. Jul 28, 2006 #7
    Yes, I think I made an oversimplification in my mind. Let's continue this
    after I do some more learning.
  9. Jul 28, 2006 #8
    There is an old paper by Bondi about negative mass. Since I only have negative money, can someone send it to me?
  10. Jul 28, 2006 #9
    Sure. PM your email address to me and I'll send it to you within a day or so (since I'll have to find it and then scan it and convert it to PDF).

  11. Jul 28, 2006 #10
    Please send it to actionintegral@yahoo.com

    Much, Much obliged!
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