Why is it that introducing a hard cut-off ##p^{2}=\Lambda^{2}## breaks Lorentz invariance? Is it simply that it introduces an energy scale and energy is not a Lorentz invariant quantity?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Sorry if this is a trivial question, but I just want to make sure I understand the reasoning as I've heard/read it being stated, but never fully appreciated why.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# I Momentum cut-off regularisation & Lorentz invariance

Have something to add?

Draft saved
Draft deleted

Loading...

Similar Threads for Momentum regularisation Lorentz |
---|

I Spin Angular Momentum Dirac Equation |

A Inverse momentum operator |

I Does the Schrödinger equation link position and momentum? |

I Feynman Diagram-Momentum conservation in primitive vertex |

B Do atomic nuclei transfer momentum to electron orbitals? |

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**