Inverse functions and null set.

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the properties of inverse functions, specifically in the context of a function defined from set A = {1,2,3,7,8} to set B = {4,5,6}. The function f is established as a surjection but not an injection, as elements 7 and 8 in set A do not map to any elements in set B. It is concluded that an inverse function can exist if f is restricted to the subset {1,2,3}, which maps onto {4,5,6}. The participants clarify that a function does not need to utilize every element in the domain to possess an inverse, addressing potential confusion regarding the null set.

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blastoise
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Ok,

I understand an inverse function sends a variable in the range to the corresponding value in the domain, but am not sure if what I'm thinking is correct... : For example:

Let A be the set


A = \{1,2,3,7,8\} ; B = \{4,5,6\} and the function f map A to B s.t

f(1) = 4
f(2) = 5
f(3) = 6

so 7,8 do not have a value that is mapped one to one.

I understand f is an surjection, but not a injection . But, does an inverse function exist?

I would say yes, despite there not being a value in B that maps to 7 or 8.
Is my thinking correct?


Also, am I correct to say that a function does not have to use every element in the domain in order to have an inverse; I am confused because wouldn't one just say it maps to the null set and the inverse of the null set would contain values(7,8) that it maps to and hence not a function...?
 
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blastoise said:
Ok,

I understand an inverse function sends a variable in the range to the corresponding value in the domain, but am not sure if what I'm thinking is correct... : For example:

Let A be the set


A = \{1,2,3,7,8\} ; B = \{4,5,6\} and the function f map A to B s.t

f(1) = 4
f(2) = 5
f(3) = 6

so 7,8 do not have a value that is mapped one to one.


*** ...and thus f is NOT a function from A to B but one from a proper subset of A to B...***



I understand f is an surjection, but not a injection . But, does an inverse function exist?


*** Yes, if we look at f defined from {1,2,3} onto {4,5,6}. ***



I would say yes, despite there not being a value in B that maps to 7 or 8.
Is my thinking correct?


Also, am I correct to say that a function does not have to use every element in the domain in order to have an inverse; I am confused because wouldn't one just say it maps to the null set and the inverse of the null set would contain values(7,8) that it maps to and hence not a function...?


If we talk of a function f: A\to B , we're explicitly assuming f is defined in the whole of A. Whether f is 1-1 and/or onto is another matter.

DonAntonio
 

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