stine23 Messages 1 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Dec 3, 2008 #1 How do I prove that if A is an invertible matrix and lambda does not equal zero then one dived by lambda is an eigenvalue of the inverse of A?
How do I prove that if A is an invertible matrix and lambda does not equal zero then one dived by lambda is an eigenvalue of the inverse of A?
Ben Niehoff Science Advisor Gold Member Messages 1,891 Reaction score 170 Dec 3, 2008 #2 First of all, if A is invertible, then none of the eigenvalues can be 0, by definition. Second, consider [tex]Av = \lambda v[/tex] for some eigenvector v. What is [tex]A^{-1}(\lambda v)[/tex] ?
First of all, if A is invertible, then none of the eigenvalues can be 0, by definition. Second, consider [tex]Av = \lambda v[/tex] for some eigenvector v. What is [tex]A^{-1}(\lambda v)[/tex] ?