Is De Morgan's Law Always True?

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SUMMARY

De Morgan's Law states that the complement of the intersection of two sets is equal to the union of their complements, expressed as (A ∩ B)* = A* ∪ B*. In the discussion, a specific example with sets A = {1,2,3} and B = {2,3,4,5} is used to illustrate a misunderstanding regarding the proof in a textbook. The correct interpretation confirms that if x belongs to (A ∩ B)*, then x does not belong to A ∪ B, validating De Morgan's Law. The discussion emphasizes the importance of precise notation and understanding in set theory.

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johncena
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In my textbook, the proof for demorgan's law,
(AintersectionB)* = A*unionB*
[*=complement]
starts with,saying that for all x belongs to (AintersectionB)* , x is not a member of AunionB.
But how can we say that, for example,
if A = {1,2,3} and B = (2,3,4,5} and U = {1,2,3,4,5}
(AintersectionB)^ = {1,4,5}
and AunionB = {1,2,3,4,5}
here all x which belongs to (AintersectionB)* are members of the set AunionB.
 
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johncena said:
In my textbook, the proof for demorgan's law,
(AintersectionB)* = A*unionB*
[*=complement]
starts with,saying that for all x belongs to (AintersectionB)* , x is not a member of AunionB.

Are you sure it doesn't say

<br /> x \in (A \cap B)^C \Rightarrow x \not \in A \cap B<br />

because if it is written as you say, it isn't correct and must be a typographical error.
 
de morgan's law says: Ac U Bc = (A \cap B)c

taking your examples:
if A = {1,2,3} and B = {2,3,4,5} and U = {1,2,3,4,5}

Ac = {4,5}
Bc = {1}

Ac U Bc = {1,4,5}
(A \cap B)={2,3}
(A \cap B)c={1,4,5}

Now to show that de morgan's crule is true in general,
First assume x \in Ac U Bc then show x \in(A \cap B)c

Then assume x \in(A \cap B)cthen show x \in Ac U Bc
 

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