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Jimmy Snyder said:This post will not be emotional nor rhetorical. It simply clears up something that might have been unclear about the law in the US. I define suicide as killing yourself and euthanasia as killing someone else. Certain adjectives have been introduced perhaps making things unclear, so I will make the following definitions. I will justify them by citing US law.
assisted suicide. Suicide with the help of another. An example would be a physician provides a lethal dose at your request, hands it to you, and you administer it to yourself.
voluntary euthanasia. Euthanasia according to the wishes of the person who will die. An example would be a physician provides a lethal dose at your request, does not hand it to you, but administers it himself.
With these definitions, and in spite of some hints to the contrary, there is no jurisdiction in the US that allows voluntary euthanasia. There are three states that allow assisted suicide. These are Washington, Oregon, and Montana. The case in Washington is particularly revealing in that there was a law proposed in 1991 that would have allowed voluntary euthanasia but it did not pass. The current law passed when the language was changed to preclude it. In the following, I-1000 refers to the Death with Dignity Act.
Empasis mine.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Washington_Death_with_Dignity_Act"
Oregon's law requires self administration.
Emphasis mine
http://www.oregon.gov/DHS/ph/pas/faqs.shtml"
The situation in Montana is less clear. No particular law allows assisted suicide. Rather, a state supreme court ruling stated that there was no law in Montana that forbids it. I haven't found anything worthy of linking to because I can't find the case they were deciding on (was it a case of assisted suicide, or was it voluntary euthanasia), nor can I find the wording of the decision. All the news stories I have found use the language "assisted suicide", and I don't want to link to them for fear you will accuse me of jumping to conclusions.
In future, I will not expect to hear any more attempts to equate these two legally different concepts regardless of support from wiki or any other non-legal source.
I don't get it... because a law that was never enacted spooked you, and a few other US laws don't work for you... somehow one term is judgment-neutral and the other is evil? I also have no idea what this has to do with your previous... well... rants.
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