Is $f$ a one-to-one function on $S$?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the equivalence of various statements regarding whether a function \( f: S \to T \) is one-to-one on the set \( S \). Participants explore the implications of different conditions related to the function's behavior with respect to subsets of \( S \), including intersections and images of subsets.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose that \( f \) is one-to-one if and only if \( f(A \cap B) = f(A) \cap f(B) \) for all subsets \( A, B \) of \( S \).
  • Others argue that starting from the assumption that \( f \) is one-to-one, one can show that if \( t \in f(A) \cap f(B) \), then \( t \) must also be in \( f(A \cap B) \).
  • A participant questions how the condition \( f(A \cap B) = f(A) \cap f(B) \) can be used to demonstrate that \( f^{-1}[f(A)] = A \) for every subset \( A \) of \( S \).
  • Another participant notes that to show \( f^{-1}(f(A)) \subseteq A \), it suffices to assume \( f^{-1}(f(A)) = A \cup B \) with \( A \cap B = \emptyset \) and use condition (b) to conclude that \( B \) must be empty.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express various viewpoints on the implications of the conditions for one-to-one functions, and there is no consensus on how to proceed with the proofs or the equivalences among the statements.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the logical steps needed to connect the statements, particularly regarding the implications of the conditions and how they relate to each other.

Dustinsfl
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Let $f:S\to T$ be a function.
Prove that the following statements are equivalent.a
$f$ is one-to-one on $S$.

b
$f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ for all subsets $A,B$ of $S$.

c
$f^{-1}[f(A)] = A$ for every subset $A$ of $S$.

d
For all disjoint subsets $A$ and $B$ of $S$, the images $f(A)$ and $f(B)$ are disjoint.

Having a tough time with this one.
 
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dwsmith said:
Let $f:S\to T$ be a function.
Prove that the following statements are equivalent.
a
$f$ is one-to-one on $S$.

b
$f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ for all subsets $A,B$ of $S$.
For any function $f$ we have $f(A\cap B)\subseteq f(A)\cap f(B)$.
So suppose that $f$ is one-to-one and $t\in f(A)\cap f(B)$.
$\left( {\exists {a_t} \in A} \right)\left[ {f({a_t}) = t} \right]~\&~\left( {\exists {b_t} \in B} \right)\left[ {f({b_t}) = t} \right]$.
Use one-to-one to prove $t\in f(A\cap B)$.

Now start with $f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ and continue.
 
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Plato said:
For any function $f$ we have $f(A\cap B)\subseteq f(A)\cap f(B)$.
So suppose that $f$ is one-to-one and $t\in f(A)\cap f(B)$.
$\left( {\exists {a_t} \in A} \right)\left[ {f({a_t}) = t} \right]~\&~\left( {\exists {b_t} \in B} \right)\left[ {f({b_t}) = t} \right]$.
Use one-to-one to prove $t\in f(A\cap B)$.

Now start with $f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ and continue.
How can $f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ be used to show c is true? I don't get it.
 
dwsmith said:
How can $f(A\cap B) = f(A)\cap f(B)$ be used to show c is true? I don't get it.
I would show that $a) \Leftrightarrow c)$.
 
Note that $f^{-1}(f(A))\supseteq A$, so one only has to show $f^{-1}(f(A))\subseteq A$. Suppose $f^{-1}(f(A))=A\cup B$ where $A\cap B=\emptyset$. Using (b) show that $f(B)=\emptyset$ and therefore $B=\emptyset$.
 

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