Is 'gustar' really different from 'to like' and 'to please'?

[Imparcticle]

According to my Spanish book, "Gustar" is defined as "to like". According to my spanish teacher, "Gustar" should be defined as "To please". According to the dictionary, both "to like" and "to please" are essentially analogous. I pointed this out to him (my Spanish teacher), and he said they are different. I respect my teacher; he is very talented in semantics and philosophy. I would like to see the error I have made in my analysis. Can someone please point it out to me?

 

[Kerrie]

i am thinking this is more of a homework question then a philosophy question?

 

[gnome]

Think of the difference between "I like chocolate" and "Chocolate pleases me."

They're close -- either way I end up fat & happy. But in the first case, I'm the active one, I'm "doing" the liking. The chocolate just lies there waiting for me. In the second case it's the chocolate that's active. I just lie there and the chocolate does it's thing.

You can replace the chocolate with whatever pleases you.

Mmm...

 

[cookiemonster]

And "gustar" is the second one.

cookiemonster

 

[chroot]

It just happens that in spanish, you don't like things -- things please you. Deal with it.

- Warren

 

[Imparcticle]

Think of the difference between "I like chocolate" and "Chocolate pleases me."

They're close -- either way I end up fat & happy. But in the first case, I'm the active one, I'm "doing" the liking. The chocolate just lies there waiting for me. In the second case it's the chocolate that's active. I just lie there and the chocolate does it's thing.

You can replace the chocolate with whatever pleases you.

Mmm...

Oh, I see now. Thank you. Very cool, I must say.