In a linear system of equations where there is a solution, is it possible for Cramer's rule to fail? By fail, as in end up with a zero determinate on either the top or the bottom or both.
You are correct - I missed his qualifying statement.Statdad, when the OP stated "In a linear system of equations where there is a solution" I took that to mean that there is a unique solution to the equations. In this case then all that I said above is true. Clearly Cramers rule will fail if there is not a unique solution.