Is it Possible for a Random Variable to Have a Variance of Zero?

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    2015
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SUMMARY

A random variable \(X\) with a variance of zero implies that \(X\) is constant with probability one, specifically \(X = \mathbb{E}[X]\). This conclusion is derived from the definition of variance, where a variance of zero indicates no variability in the values of the random variable. The problem posed in the discussion remains unsolved by participants, highlighting the need for clarity on the implications of variance in probability theory.

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Euge
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Let $X$ be random variable whose variance is zero. Prove that with probability one, $X = \Bbb E[X]$.

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Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
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No one answered this week's problem correctly. Here is my solution:

For convenience, let $\mu = \Bbb E[X]$. The sequence of events $(|X - \mu| > 1/n)$, $n\in \Bbb N$, increases to the event $(X \neq \mu)$, so $P(X\neq \mu) = \lim\limits_{n\to \infty} P(|X - \mu| > 1/n)$. By Markov's inequality and the assumption $\operatorname{Var}(X) = 0$, we have $$P(|X - \mu| > 1/n) = P(|X - \mu|^2 > 1/n^2) \le n^2 \operatorname{Var}(X) = 0$$ for all $n\in \Bbb N$. Therefore, $P(X\neq \mu) = 0$. In other words, $X = \mu$ with probability one.
 

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