Is $\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R$ isomorphic to $\Bbb C$?

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In summary, the tensor product of $\Bbb Z$ and $\Bbb R$, denoted as $\Bbb G \otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb H$, is a new group formed by taking the quotient of the free product of $\Bbb G$ and $\Bbb H$ by the subgroup generated by elements of the form $g \otimes h - gh$ for all $g \in \Bbb G$ and $h \in \Bbb H$. The isomorphism between $\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R$ and $\Bbb C$ is given by the map $f:\Bbb Z\otimes_{\B
  • #1
Euge
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Let $\Bbb Z$ denote the ring of Gaussian integers. Prove that the tensor product $\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R$ is ring isomorphic to the complex numbers $\Bbb C$.

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Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
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  • #2
I'm giving users one more week to attempt to solve this problem. Start by considering simple tensors $1 \otimes x$ and $i \otimes x$ for a fixed $x\in \Bbb R$.
 
  • #3
No one answered this week's problem. You can read my solution below.

The map $\Bbb Z \times \Bbb R \to \Bbb C$, $(z,r) \mapsto zr$ is a $\Bbb Z$-bilinear map, so it induces a unique $\Bbb Z$-linear map $\Phi : \Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R \to \Bbb C$ such that $\Phi(z\otimes r) = zr$. The map $\Psi: \Bbb C \to \Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R$ given by $\Psi(z) = 1\otimes \operatorname{Re}(z) + i \otimes \operatorname{Im}(z)$ is the inverse of $\Phi$. Hence, $\Phi$ is a $\Bbb Z$-linear isomorphism. So it suffices to show $\Psi(zw) = \Psi(z)\Psi(w)$ for all $z,w\in \Bbb C$. Given $z = a + bi$ and $w = c + di$, $zw = (ac - bd) + (ad + bc)i$; thus $$\Psi(zw) = 1\otimes (ac - bd) + i\otimes (ad + bc) = (1\otimes a)(1\otimes c) + (i\otimes b)(i\otimes d) + (1\otimes a)(i\otimes d) + (i\otimes b)(1\otimes c) = (1 \otimes a + i\otimes b)(1\otimes c + i\otimes d) = \Psi(z)\Psi(w).$$
 

1. What is the tensor product of $\Bbb Z$ and $\Bbb R$?

The tensor product of two groups $\Bbb G$ and $\Bbb H$, denoted as $\Bbb G \otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb H$, is a new group formed by taking the quotient of the free product of $\Bbb G$ and $\Bbb H$ by the subgroup generated by elements of the form $g \otimes h - gh$ for all $g \in \Bbb G$ and $h \in \Bbb H$.

2. What is the isomorphism between $\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R$ and $\Bbb C$?

The isomorphism between $\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R$ and $\Bbb C$ is given by the map $f:\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R \to \Bbb C$ defined as $f(n \otimes r) = nr$ for all $n \in \Bbb Z$ and $r \in \Bbb R$. This map is well-defined, bijective, and preserves the group structure of both groups, making it an isomorphism.

3. Is $\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R$ isomorphic to $\Bbb C$ as groups?

Yes, $\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R$ is isomorphic to $\Bbb C$ as groups. This means that they have the same structure and properties, and can be seen as equivalent groups.

4. What is the significance of the tensor product in this context?

The tensor product allows us to construct new groups from existing ones, by taking into account the interactions between the elements of the original groups. In the case of $\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb R$ and $\Bbb C$, the tensor product captures the multiplicative interactions between integers and real numbers, leading to an isomorphic group structure.

5. Is there a similar isomorphism between $\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb Q$ and $\Bbb R$?

No, there is no similar isomorphism between $\Bbb Z\otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb Q$ and $\Bbb R$. This is because the tensor product takes into account the interactions between elements of the underlying groups, and since $\Bbb Q$ and $\Bbb R$ have different algebraic structures, there is no such isomorphism between them.

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