MHB Is it possible to prove the inequality without using induction?

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The discussion revolves around proving the inequality $\dfrac{1}{2} \cdot \dfrac{3}{4} \cdot \dfrac{5}{6} \cdots \dfrac{1997}{1998} >\dfrac{1}{1999}$ without using induction. Participants express admiration for the elegant solution provided by a user named Ackbach. The challenge lies in finding a non-inductive approach to demonstrate the inequality's validity. The conversation highlights the complexity of the problem and the satisfaction of discovering a solution. Overall, the thread showcases a successful mathematical exploration of inequalities.
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Show that $\dfrac{1}{2} \cdot \dfrac{3}{4} \cdot \dfrac{5}{6} \cdots \dfrac{1997}{1998} >\dfrac{1}{1999}$, where the use of induction method is not allowed.
 
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This is equivalent to showing
$$1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdot \dots \cdot 1999 > 2 \cdot 4 \cdot 6 \cdot \dots \cdot 1998.$$
But this is so, since $3>2$, and $5>4$, etc. The left-hand product has one more term (the number $1$) in it than the right-hand term. Therefore, the left-hand product is greater.
 
Wow...the moment I saw this problem, I naturally perceived as a hard to prove sort of inequality problem but you cracked it in such an elegant method! Well done, Ackbach, and thanks for participating! :)
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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