Is Neutrino Spin Truly Equal to Electron Spin?

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    Neutrino Spin
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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the spin of neutrinos and its equivalence to electron spin, specifically addressing the intrinsic property of neutrinos as fermions with half-integer spin (ħ/2). Participants reference the Standard Model, which assumes all leptons, including neutrinos, possess this spin. Experimental evidence, such as the Goldhaber et al. experiment and neutron decay measurements, supports the conservation of angular momentum and confirms the neutrino's spin characteristics. The conversation highlights the implications of neutrino spin on particle decay processes and the theoretical consequences if neutrinos were to possess different spin values.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Standard Model of particle physics
  • Familiarity with concepts of angular momentum and spin in quantum mechanics
  • Knowledge of experimental methods in particle physics, particularly decay processes
  • Awareness of neutrino properties and their classification as fermions
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the Goldhaber et al. experiment for insights on neutrino helicity measurements
  • Explore neutron decay experiments and their implications for neutrino spin
  • Investigate the conservation of angular momentum in particle decay processes
  • Study the implications of neutrino mass and spin on the Standard Model
USEFUL FOR

Particle physicists, researchers in quantum mechanics, and students studying the properties of fundamental particles will benefit from this discussion, particularly those interested in neutrino physics and the implications of spin in particle interactions.

alba
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Is there any experimental evidence that neutrino spin is equal to the electron spin ( I think h/4pi, right?)

If it is just an assumed intrinsic property,can you explain on what grounds it is assumed as such, is it juas a matter of parity?
 
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there probably is, but I haven't found any info in my looking

that link I gave ( and many others I read) identifies the type of particle the neutrino is ... that info was gained by experimentation
it is identified in being part of the same group as the electron ie the lepton, ergo it has the same spin as the electron ...
The neutrino has half-integer spin (ħ⁄2)not sure what else you want ?maybe some of our particle physicists can take it further ?
@ZapperZ Dave
 
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davenn said:
there probably is, but I haven't found any info in my looking
not sure what else you want ?Dave
Thanks , Dave, I was just looking for some experimental evidence, or at least some indirect confirmation. I know the Standard Model assumes all fermions, leptons have spin 1/2. But suppose (ad absurdum) neutrino has no spin, what happens, what is the problem?
 
alba said:
.I am asking if there is any concrete experimental data that confirms that it has indeed some spin and that its magnitude is h/4pi

It is by conservation of angular momentum.
Also the helicity of the neutrinos has been measured (eg the Goldhaber et al experiment)
 
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Accurate measurements are available of neutron decay.
My guess, as I have not analysed the paper, is that these would have shown up - Nobel prize winning - deviations from the present electroweak theory if the neutrino would not be (nearly) massless with spin 1/2.
http://neutron.physics.ncsu.edu/UCNA/protected/55_2_0119.pdf
 
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A different spin would lead to different angular distributions of the decaying particles, something measured in the experiments of Wu and Goldhaber, and later much more precisely with particle accelerators.
 
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If the neutrino were spin-0, it would mean angular momentum is not conserved.

If the neutrino were spin-3/2, \frac{B(\pi \rightarrow \mu \nu \overline{\nu})}{B(\pi \rightarrow e \nu \overline{\nu})} would be some number other than the measured ~12,000.
 
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  • #10
mfb said:
A different spin would lead to different angular distributions of the decaying particles, something measured in the experiments of Wu and Goldhaber, and later much more precisely with particle accelerators.
Why can't spin be added during the process?
 
  • #11
Vanadium 50 said:
If the neutrino were spin-0, it would mean angular momentum is not conserved.

If the neutrino were spin-3/2, \frac{B(\pi \rightarrow \mu \nu \overline{\nu})}{B(\pi \rightarrow e \nu \overline{\nu})} would be some number other than the measured ~12,000.
What I meant is that the spin musn't necesseraly be an intrinsic property. Like in a billiard ball any spin can be generated by the cue or by a collision, the value of the spin +1/2 or -1/2 (or any other value) could be determined only by the process. This would also eliminate the akward assumption of an antineutrino antiparticle of itself. Does the linked experiment rule out this possibility? Ihave not the expertise to reach any conclusion.

Thanks for your help. anyway
 
  • #12
alba said:
What I meant is that the spin musn't necesseraly be an intrinsic property.

ahhh but it is
 
  • #13
@Vanadium 50: I think you just want one neutrino in the decay.
alba said:
Why can't spin be added during the process?
What do you mean by "added"?
Angular momentum is conserved.

alba said:
This would also eliminate the akward assumption of an antineutrino antiparticle of itself.
Assumption of what? It is possible that neutrinos are their own antiparticles, but they don't have to be - measurements are not precise enough yet to distinguish between those possibilities.
 
  • #14
mfb said:
I think you just want one neutrino in the decay.

You're right. The one I want is \frac{B(\pi \rightarrow \mu \nu)}{B(\pi \rightarrow e \nu)}

(Bonus points for guessing which reaction I was starting to write down when I thought better of it - and then blew it)
 
  • #15
alba said:
What I meant is that the spin musn't necesseraly be an intrinsic property.

But that's how it's defined. You can talk about angular momentum that is not intrinsic, but that is by definition, not spin.
 
  • #16
alba said:
What I meant is that the spin musn't necesseraly be an intrinsic property. Like in a billiard ball any spin can be generated by the cue or by a collision, the value of the spin +1/2 or -1/2 (or any other value) could be determined only by the process. This would also eliminate the akward assumption of an antineutrino antiparticle of itself. Does the linked experiment rule out this possibility? Ihave
By the way, have you ever seen a billiard ball "spinning" at half-integer angular momentum?
 

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