Is Quantumness of Product States a Violation of Classical Realism?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of product states in quantum mechanics and their relationship to classical realism, particularly in the context of Bell inequalities. Participants explore the implications of a paper that suggests product states can exhibit quantumness, challenging traditional views on the distinction between quantum and classical states.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants note that product states do not violate Bell inequalities, unlike entangled states, which traditionally marks a boundary between quantum and classical realms.
  • A paper is referenced that claims product states can exhibit quantumness by violating certain classical algebraic models, suggesting a more nuanced relationship between quantum mechanics and classical theories.
  • One participant expresses confusion regarding the mathematical formalism, questioning the validity of the claims made in the paper about the relationship between observables and their algebraic properties.
  • Another participant seeks clarification on the definitions of product states and entangled states, indicating a need for more accessible explanations of these concepts.
  • Some participants express skepticism about the implications of non-commutativity, suggesting it may not necessarily lead to a violation of classical realism.
  • There is a discussion about the availability of literature on the Alicki-Van Ryn inequality, with participants sharing links to relevant papers and expressing difficulty in accessing certain resources.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the implications of non-commutativity for classical realism, with some arguing it is trivial while others question its significance. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the relationship between product states and classical realism.

Contextual Notes

Participants express varying levels of understanding of quantum mechanics formalism, which may affect their interpretations of the discussed concepts. The discussion also highlights the challenge of accessing specific academic resources related to the topic.

DrChinese
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I saw this today, thought some of you might find it interesting (as I did).

Product states do not violate Bell inequalities. Entangled states do, and this draws a clear line between the quantum world and the classical world.

So imagine my surprise with this: a paper that shows that even Product States can cross the line between the quantum world and the classical world.

Quantumness of Product States
Jing-Ling Chen, Hong-Yi Su, Chunfeng Wu, C. H. Oh
http://arxiv.org/abs/1204.1798

From the paper:

Abstract: Product states do not violate Bell inequalities. In this work, we investigate the quantumness of product states by violating a certain classical algebraic models. Thus even for product states, statistical predictions of quantum mechanics and classical theories do not agree. An experiment protocol is proposed to reveal the quantumness...

...a classical model must satisfy the AR [Alicki-Van Ryn] inequality


[itex](1) <A>\: ≥\: 0,[/itex]
[itex](2) <B>\: ≥\: 0,[/itex]
[itex](3) <B − A>\: ≥\: 0,[/itex]
[itex](4) <B^2 − A^2>\: ≥\: 0[/itex]

However, in quantum mechanics there exist noncommutative observables that violate the fourth constraint, namely, one can find positive-definite observables A and B satisfying [the first three but not the last]. This violation is called quantumness. Experimental tests have been performed for the case of one qubit...
[itex]\:[/itex]
 
Last edited:
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DrChinese said:
I saw this today, thought some of you might find it interesting (as I did).

Product states do not violate Bell inequalities. Entangled states do, and this draws a clear line between the quantum world and the classical world.

So imagine my surprise with this: a paper that shows that even Product States can cross the line between the quantum world and the classical world.

Quantumness of Product States
Jing-Ling Chen, Hong-Yi Su, Chunfeng Wu, C. H. Oh
http://arxiv.org/abs/1204.1798

From the paper:

Abstract: Product states do not violate Bell inequalities. In this work, we investigate the quantumness of product states by violating a certain classical algebraic models. Thus even for product states, statistical predictions of quantum mechanics and classical theories do not agree. An experiment protocol is proposed to reveal the quantumness...

...a classical model must satisfy the AR [Alicki-Van Ryn] inequality[itex](1) <A>\: ≥\: 0,[/itex]
[itex](2) <B>\: ≥\: 0,[/itex]
[itex](3) <B − A>\: ≥\: 0,[/itex]
[itex](4) <B^2 − A^2>\: ≥\: 0[/itex]

However, in quantum mechanics there exist noncommutative observables that violate the fourth constraint, namely, one can find positive-definite observables A and B satisfying [the first three but not the last]. This violation is called quantumness. Experimental tests have been performed for the case of one qubit...
[itex]\:[/itex]

browsed through the 2 page paper

it would help, some of us, if you can give the layman definition of "product state" and compare/contrast from quantum entangled state (or any other relevant state), thanks
 
Well, I do not understand QM formalisms so well to say it's crap but it certainly looks like that.
For one thing [itex]A\otimes B[/itex] is not [itex]A-B[/itex] and [itex]A^2[/itex] (whatever that means) is not [itex]A\otimes A[/itex].
If A and B are two-dimensional matrices then [itex]A-B[/itex] is two-dimensional matrice as well but [itex]A\otimes B[/itex] is four-dimensional matrice (combination of everything with everything).
 
AR [Alicki-Van Ryn] inequality
...is described in: "R. Alicki and N. Van Ryn, J. Phys. A: Math. Theor. 41, 062001 (2008).", which does not seem to be available online. Google does not help. Any ideas?

Also: http://www.nist.gov/manuscript-publication-search.cfm?pub_id=900940
We present an optimized experimental realization of this test leading to a 46standard deviation violation of classicality.
 
It seems trivial, or am I missing something? Of course non-commutativity is not classical.
 
martinbn said:
It seems trivial, or am I missing something? Of course non-commutativity is not classical.

When I try to put my socks on after I put on my shoes, I am not so sure.
 
DrChinese said:
When I try to put my socks on after I put on my shoes, I am not so sure.

Non-commutativity of observables, that was clear, no?
 
martinbn said:
It seems trivial, or am I missing something? Of course non-commutativity is not classical.

I don't believe there is a proof that the existence of non-commuting observables violates classical realism.
 
  • #10
I don't know what classical realism is, and whether it has to be violated in order for me to say that something is not classical. For example the uncertainty relations for momentum and coordinates is not classical, and that is a clear statement no matter what kind of realism is violated.
 

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