Pinu7
- 275
- 5
John Baez would answer the OP with 'yes.' His argument (the Bayesian interpretation) can be found here: http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/bayes.html
Personally, I believe the opposite since an empirical description of the universe need no notion of 'pure randomness.' All of it is statistical.
Personally, I believe the opposite since an empirical description of the universe need no notion of 'pure randomness.' All of it is statistical.