A Is the Assertion Derived from a General Theorem Trivial or Interesting?

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There is an assertion that follows from very general theorem directly and I do not understand if this assertion trivial or it may be of some interest. The assertion is enclosed below please comment
Screenshot_2021-07-14_21-47-43.png
 
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Thread '2-sphere intrinsic definition by gluing disks' boundaries'

A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.
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