Roberto Pavani
- 275
- 116
- TL;DR
- In Eq. 56 the observable is changed from sign(φ) to sign(φ+α). Since shifts in function spaces generally modify overlaps and correlations, I'm struggling to see why this deformation should be considered innocuous. Is there a theorem guaranteeing that the relevant correlation structure is preserved, or is the altered correlation structure precisely what produces the Bell-CHSH enhancement?
I'm reading these papers:
https://arxiv.org/pdf/2412.03840
https://link.springer.com/article/10.1140/epjc/s10052-026-15445-1
and I'm struggling with Eq. (56).
The Bell-CHSH enhancement appears only after replacing
## sign(φ(f)) ##
with
## sign(φ(f)+α) ##
whereas the undeformed observable does not seem to violate the Bell-CHSH bound.
My concern is that this is not just a reparametrization. It changes the threshold that partitions the spectrum of φ(f), from 0 to -α, and therefore changes the induced probabilities and correlations.
From my perspective, changing a threshold generally changes the geometry of the probability space. Two observables may have one correlation structure before thresholding and a different one after thresholding, especially when the threshold itself is shifted.
Is there a theorem showing that this deformation preserves the correlation structure relevant to the Bell-CHSH analysis, or is the modified correlation structure itself part of the mechanism that generates the enhancement?
Another point that confuses me is that the paper does not introduce a single common shift, but four independent parameters
## α, α', β, β' ##
for the Bell observables.
If these shifts modify the probability partitions, then each observable is being deformed differently. Why should the resulting CHSH value be regarded primarily as a property of the underlying vacuum state rather than, at least in part, a consequence of the observable-dependent threshold choices?
I am probably missing something, but I do not see why the transformation in Eq. (56) should be considered innocuous from the point of view of correlations.
https://arxiv.org/pdf/2412.03840
https://link.springer.com/article/10.1140/epjc/s10052-026-15445-1
and I'm struggling with Eq. (56).
The Bell-CHSH enhancement appears only after replacing
## sign(φ(f)) ##
with
## sign(φ(f)+α) ##
whereas the undeformed observable does not seem to violate the Bell-CHSH bound.
My concern is that this is not just a reparametrization. It changes the threshold that partitions the spectrum of φ(f), from 0 to -α, and therefore changes the induced probabilities and correlations.
From my perspective, changing a threshold generally changes the geometry of the probability space. Two observables may have one correlation structure before thresholding and a different one after thresholding, especially when the threshold itself is shifted.
Is there a theorem showing that this deformation preserves the correlation structure relevant to the Bell-CHSH analysis, or is the modified correlation structure itself part of the mechanism that generates the enhancement?
Another point that confuses me is that the paper does not introduce a single common shift, but four independent parameters
## α, α', β, β' ##
for the Bell observables.
If these shifts modify the probability partitions, then each observable is being deformed differently. Why should the resulting CHSH value be regarded primarily as a property of the underlying vacuum state rather than, at least in part, a consequence of the observable-dependent threshold choices?
I am probably missing something, but I do not see why the transformation in Eq. (56) should be considered innocuous from the point of view of correlations.