Is the following set equal to the empty set?

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SUMMARY

The set A defined as A={x: x∈A ⇒ y∈A, x≠y} is not equal to the empty set. The reasoning presented indicates that if A were to exist, it would imply the existence of a universal set, which contradicts established set theory principles. Therefore, A is ill-defined and cannot be considered a valid set. The discussion emphasizes the logical implications of set-builder notation and the necessity of a universal set for A to hold true.

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Is the following set equal to the empty set??

A={x:x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A ,x\neq y},if yes prove it ,if not disproved it
 
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This doesn't make sense. For one thing any thing that is not in A will be in A.
 


A Is a set of x elements in a such way that if x belongs to A THEN ANY y different from x belongs to A.

Doesn't that make sense??
 


Well, if A existed, it would be the universal set (because of what Focus said). But there is no universal set. So A is not a set.
 


poutsos.A said:
A={x:x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A ,x\neq y}

This is just
\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longleftrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)
which is
\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)
\left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)\Longrightarrow\forall x\;\; x\in A
which is
\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)
\forall x\;\; \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)\Longrightarrow x\in A
which is
\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)
\forall x\;\; x\in A
which is
\forall x\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A
\forall x\;\; x\in A
which is
A=\mathcal{U}

So if you have a universal set, A is it; if not, the definition is ill-defined.
Edit: What Preno said.
 


CRGreathouse said:
This is just
\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longleftrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)
which is
\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)
\left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)\Longrightarrow\forall x\;\; x\in A
which is
\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)
\forall x\;\; \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)\Longrightarrow x\in A
which is
\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)
\forall x\;\; x\in A
which is
\forall x\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A
\forall x\;\; x\in A
which is
A=\mathcal{U}

So if you have a universal set, A is it; if not, the definition is ill-defined.
Edit: What Preno said.
.

LETS take it line by line:

1st line you have written: \forall x\;\; x\in A\Longleftrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right).

DO you actually mean:x\in A\Longleftrightarrow(x\in A\Longrightarrow\forall y(y\neq x\wedge y\in A)).

If yes, how did you get that?
 


I'm just expanding the definition of set-builder notation.
 


expanding set builder notation is:

x\in A\Longleftrightarrow[(x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A)\wedge x\neq y]

Now how from the above you get :


\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longleftrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right).
 


poutsos.A said:
expanding set builder notation is:

x\in A\Longleftrightarrow[(x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A)\wedge x\neq y]

Wait, you really meant
(x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A)\wedge x\neq y
in your original formulation when you wrote
x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A ,x\neq y?

That's very different!
 
  • #10


yes

A= { x: (x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A)\wedge x\neq y}

sorry
 
  • #11


So your definition is given in terms of the unbound variable y? I was assuming in my translation that you intended for the definition to be a sentence.
 
  • #12


the whole sentence
 

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