Is the Integral of f(x)/x Sin(nx) Zero as n Approaches Infinity?

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SUMMARY

The integral of the function \(\frac{f(x)}{x} \sin(nx)\) approaches zero as \(n\) approaches infinity, provided that \(\frac{f(x)}{x}\) is square integrable over the interval \([a, b]\). This conclusion is supported by theorems related to the behavior of smooth functions when multiplied by high-frequency oscillatory functions. The smoothness of \(\frac{f(x)}{x}\) ensures that the integral converges to zero due to the Riemann-Lebesgue lemma, which states that the integral of a product of a square integrable function and a sinusoidal function vanishes as the frequency increases.

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If

\frac{f(x)}{x}

is square integrable, why does

\int_a^b \frac{f(x)}{x} \sin{nx} dx \longrightarrow 0

when

n \rightarrow \infty

?
 
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This is not an answer, but maybe a hint is contained in here. I think there is some theorem that will let you prove a square integrable function on a finite interval is absolutely integrable on that interval, and that demands a certain smoothness of the function. The integral of any smooth function multiplied by an infinite frequency sinusoid must be zero.
 

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